To which two kinds of sins is the Pasuk referring when it writes, "va'Tishaches ha'Aretz" and, "va'Timalei ha'Aretz Chamas"?
Rashi: "Va'Tishaches" implies both Ervah and Avodah Zarah, whereas "Chamas" refers exclusively to Gezel. 1
Targum Yonasan: "Va'Tishaches ha'Aretz" means that the earth was corrupt due to its inhabitants, who had deviated from the straight path in front of HaSh-m.
All the commentaries agree that Chamas refers to seizing another's property; also refer to 6:11:1.2:2.
Seeing as the people were guilty of a number of major sins, why does the Torah single out robbery?
Rashi: Because robbery was the final straw that broke HaSh-m's patience.
Why did HaSh-m mention to Noach (in 6:13) the sin of robbery, and not that of sexual immorality?
Ramban (to 6:13) #1: Because it is the most publicized of all sins.
Ramban #2 (citing Chazal): Because the decree was issued on account of robbery, because it is obvious and does not even require the words of a Navi to tell us that it is forbidden.
QUESTIONS ON RASHI
Rashi writes:"The word 'va'Tishaches' (corruption, ruin) is an expression of immorality and idolatry." Why are specifically these sins referred to as "corruption"?
Gur Aryeh: The Yetzer ha'Ra entices a person primarily in these areas (Yoma 69b), and: (a) if the person succumbs to the enticements, the person becomes corrupted; (b) the Yetzer ha'Ra itself is a called a "Mashchis," for after it entices a person, it ascends and accuses the person before HaSh-m.
Rashi writes: "'Chamas' means Gezel (robbery)." The Gemara (Bava Kama 62a), however, makes a distinction between these two terms: Gezel is taking without payment, whereas Chamas is taking against the owner's will, albeit with payment. Why does Rashi seem to equate the two?
Mizrachi: The Torah's expressions are different than those of Chazal. 1
Gur Aryeh: Rashi found the term Chamas troubling. Surely the people of Dor ha'Mabul did not pay for what they took, seeing as they did not fear HaSh-m! Gur Aryeh explains that although they took without paying at the time (Gezel), everyone was stealing from everyone else; thus any victim of theft already held compensation he had seized from the thief, defining the act as Chamas.
Gur Aryeh: If the Mizrachi is correct, why doesn't the Torah use the word "Gezel?"
