In Melachim I, 9:24 it says "Bas Pharaoh Alsah." Why does it say here "Es Bas Pharaoh He'elah"?
Malbim: Ezra explained that Shlomo made her go up, because the place was Kadosh.
Was he not concerned before to have a wife in Ir David?
Radak: Indeed, once he finished his house, he built a house for her, so she should not live in Ir David. Even so, she was there for two years until he finished her house. 1
It follows that he married her at most two years before finishing his house, i.e. after 18 years of kingship. Brachos 8a implies that he married her shortly after Shim'i ben Gera died (three years into his kingship). Radak (Melachim I, 3:1) ? he married her the next year. Bamidbar Rabah 10:4 - he married her the night after he finished building the Mikdash. Melachim I, 3:1 says that she stayed in Ir David until he finished the Mikdash and his house! Perhaps she entered Ir David during Eirusin. This requires investigation. (PF)
"Beis David" is singular. Why does it say "Hemah? Aleihem"?
'Rashi': The entire city and all the houses in it became Kadosh].
Radak: He refers to all David's houses. Even though the Aron was only in one house designated for it, he considered all of them to be Kadosh.
"Aron" is masculine. Why does it say "Ba'ah" (feminine)?
'Rashi': Sometimes Aron is feminine, e.g. "v'Aron ha'Elokim Nilkachah" (Shmuel I, 4:17).
