1)

Why does the Torah insert the Parshah of Avodah-Zarah followed by the Zakein Mamrei, here? What is the connection between them?

1.

Ramban: Because the Torah always begins a series of Mishpatim (punishments) with Avodah-Zarah or its worshippers. 1

2.

Seforno: Having taught the Mitzvah of appointing Batei-Din in every town, the Torah now presents the Dinim of someone who worships Avodah-Zarah and of a Zakein Mamrei, both of whom are not judged in their home towns. The former is judged in the town where he sinned, 2 and the latter, in Yerushalayim, at the hand of the Beis-Din ha'Gadol. 3


1

Refer to 11:12:1:1.

2

Refer to 17:5:1:1.

3

See Pasuk 8.

2)

What are the connotations of "Ki Yimatzei be'Kirb'cha ... "? How do Beis-Din established that that is what happened?

1.

Sifri: Beis-Din establish what hsppened by means of the two or three witnesses mentioned in Pasuk 6, and the current Pasuk teaches us that whenever the Torah uses the term "Ki Yimatzei", it means through two or three witnesses. 1


1

See Torah Temimah, note 7.

3)

Why does the Torah add the (otherwise superfluous) phrase "Asher Hashem Elokecha Nosein lach"?

1.

Ramban: To include Chutz la'Aretz, 1 where the Dinim of Avodah-Zarah are equally applicable. 2


1

Ramban: Lands which Yisrael have captured and annexed.

2

Ramban: We also learn this from the word "be'Yisrael" in Pasuk 4, implying wherever Yisrael live.

4)

What is the meaning of the word "be'Chol She'arecha"?

1.

Rashi (in Shoftim, 5:8), Targum Onkelos and Targum Yonasan: It means 'in all your towns'.

5)

Seeing as the Din of Avodah Zarah applies equally to to Chutz la'Aretz, why does the Torah write "be'Achad She'arecha" - implying specifically Eretz Yisrael?

1.

Ramban #1: Because that is usually where it takes place.

2.

Ramban #2: Because it is only in Eretz Yisrael that the sinner is put to death by the gate where he sinned; 1 in Chutz la'Aretz, he is put to death by the gate where he is judged.


1

See Pasuk 5.

6)

Why does the Torah need to mention "Ishah" independently?

1.

Ramban #1: Because, due to the mentality of women, 1 they are particularly susceptible to being influenced by signs and wonders that are performed before them. 2

2.

Ramban #2 (citing the Sifri): Because, having precluded women from the Din of 'Madi'ach' (rendering a town an Ir ha'Nidachas) - in 13:14, the Torah needs to teach us that here they themselves are subject to Sekilah if they worship Avodah Zarah. 3


1

As the Gemara states in Shabbos, 33b 'Nashim Daitan Kalos'. Refer also to Vayikra, 27:1:1:1.

2

Ramban: As we find by the women in the time of Yirmiyah ha'Navi - See Yirmiyah, Perek 44.

3

See Torah Temimah, note 8.

7)

Which covenant is the Torah referring to?

1.

Rashi: It is referring to the covenant that Hashem made with Yisrael not to worship Avodah-Zarah.

2.

Seforno: It is referring to 'the covenant that Hashem made with Yisrael over all the Mitzvos. 1


1

Seforno: Because someone who worships Avodah-Zarah denies all the Mitzvos and negates them.

Sefer: Perek: Pasuk:
Month: Day: Year:
Month: Day: Year:

KIH Logo
D.A.F. Home Page
Sponsorships & DonationsReaders' FeedbackMailing ListsTalmud ArchivesAsk the KollelDafyomi WeblinksDafyomi CalendarOther Yomi calendars