Why does the Torah write "Vehotzi'u es ha'Na'arah" and not "Vehotzi'u Osah"?
Kesuvos, 45b: To teach us that she is Chayav Misah if she was a Na'arah at the time when she sinned even though she is now a Bogeres. 1
See Torah Temimah, note 158.
Why is the girl stoned at the entrance of her father's house?
Rashi: As if to say to her father (and mother) 'See what kind of child you raised!' 1
See also Ba'al ha'Turim and Torah Temimah, note 161.
What if the girl's father is no longer alive or he has no entrance to his house?
Kesuvos, 44a: She is Chayav Sekilah anyway, since they are not crucial to the Mitzvah. 1
Kesuvos, 45b: If the girl's father has no entrance to his house, then she is stoned at the entrance of the gate of the town. 2
Why does the Torah insert the word "Ki As'sah Nevalah be'Yisrael"?
Sifri: Because it is not only herself (and her family) that she has disgraced, but all the virgins in Yisrael. 1
Kesuvos, 44b: To preclude a Giyores, who is Chayav (not Sekilah, but) Chenek, 2 who does have a 'Pesach Beis Avihah' and who is not subject to a hundred Sela.
What does the Torah mean when it writes "u'Sekaluhah Anshei Iyrah"?
Rashi (citing the Sifri): It means that all the townspeople should be present 1 when the death-sentence is carried out. 2
But not that the townspeople should prticipate in the stoning.
Mizrachi, citing Sanhedrin 45a: One witness pushes him to fall. If he does not die from the fall, the other witness drops a large stone on his heart. If he does not die, everyone stones him. Really, this was never necesssary (since he never survived the first stone).
Why does the Torah insert the (otherwise superluous) word "u'Sekaluhah ... va'Meisah" (See Torah Temimah, note 164)?
Kesuvos, 64b: To incorporate in the current Din of Sekilah a girl who was conceived whist her mother was still a Nochris but born after she converted.
Why did the Torah insert the (otherwise superfluous) word "Ki As'sah Nevalah be'Yisrael"?
Sifri: To teach us that it is not only herself that she has disgraced but all the virgins of Yisrael. 1
Kesuvos, 44a: To preclude a Giyores a. who is Chayav Chenek and not Sekilah b. who is not subject to Pesach Beis Avihah and c. who is not obligated to pay a hundred Sela 2 (if her husband is Motzi-Shem-Ra on her).
What is the meaning of "li'Zenos Beis Avihah"?
Rashi: It means to commit adultery in the house of her father 1 (before the marriage).
Yerushalmi Kesuvos, 4:5: The Torah mentions it to stress that the girl's parents and the education that they gave her should be publicly disgraced. 2
Sanhedrin, 66b: "Beis Avihah" implies that the Din Sekilah is confined to where the girl is still under her father's jurisdiction, but not if the act takes place after he has handed her over to the Sheluchei ha'Ba'al. 3
What happens to the adulterer? Why is he not mentioned?
