1)
Why does the Torah insert the (otherwise superfluous) words "eis ha'Anashim ha'Eileh ... "?
1.
Rashi: To teach us that "the men specified by name" to which the Pasuk refers are the ones listed above (and not some other men). 1
1
See Sifsei Chachamim. Even though it is not clear as to whom else it could possibly be referring. Moreover, had the Torah written simply "Osam", it would have left no doubt as to whom it was referring to?
