1)

What are the implicatikons of "Venasati Eisev be'Sadcha li'Vehemtecha"?

1.

Rashi #1: It implies that there will be sufficient grazing grounds near home, and you will not need to take your animals to the desert to graze.

2.

Rashi #2: It implies that you will be able to cut your crops throughout the winter season to feed them to your animals, and to withdraw thirty days before the harvest. and it will re-grow fully in time for the harvest.

3.

Oznayim la'Torah: Healthy animals incorporates meat, milk, wool and leather.

2)

What are the implications of "Ve'achalta Vesava'ta"? What is it referring to?

1.

Rashi and Ramban #1: It is an independent Berachah 1 - that the food will be blessed inside our stomachs in that it will satiate us and we will not be hungry.

2.

Ramban #2 (citing the Ibn Ezra): It is written with reference to "Degancha, ve'Siroshcha ve'Yitzharecha" mentioned in the previous Pasuk. 2

3.

Ramban #3: It refers to everything that precedes it - to "Degancha, ve'Siroshcha ve'Yitzharecha" and to the sheep and cattle mentioned in this Pasuk (all of which you will eat and be satiated).

4.

Ramban #4 (citing the Sifri): 'When your animals have enough to eat, they will help work the land (thereby enabling the crops to grow in abundance, 3 as a result of which you will eat and be satisfied'.

5.

Ramban #5: The Pasuk means that you will eat the children of the animals mentioned earlier and be satisfied. 4

6.

Refer to 11:14:3:2.


1

See Sifsei Chachamim.

2

Ramban (Ibid.): And not to "Eisev be'Sadcha" that immediately precedes it.

3

Ramban: As the Pasuk writes in Mishlei 14:4.

4

Ramban: As hinted in Yirmiyah, 31:11.

3)

Why does the Torah mention "Eisev ... li'Vehemtecha" before "Ve'achalta Vesava'ata"?

1.

Berachos 40a: To prohibit eating before having fed one's animals. 1


1

See Torah Temimah, note 28.

Sefer: Perek: Pasuk:

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