Why does the Torah introduce the B'rachos with the word "Es ha'Berachah" and the K'lalos with a 'Vav' - "ve'ha'Kelalah"?
Ba'al ha'Turim (in Pasuk 27, citing the Midrash Tanchuma) #1: Because "Es" implies a Ribuy (an inclusion) - to teach us that (as opposed to the K'lalos) not one of the B'rachos ever failed to materialize.
Ba'al ha'Turim (in Pasuk 27, citing the Midrash Tanchuma) #2: Because Hashem fulfilled the B'rachos from 'Alef' until 'Saf' ? of "ES" (increasing until it covered the entire spectrum of B'rachos), 1 but the K'lalos, only from 'Vav' ? of "Ve'ha'Kelalah" until 'Hey' ? of be'Yad MosheH" (decreasing and constricted). 2
Ba'al ha'Turim: In similar vein, the B'rachos in Bechukosai Hashem fulfilled from 'Alef' (of' "Es) ha'Berachah" ? until 'Tav' (of "KomemiyuS)".
Ba'al ha'Turim: And likewise, the K'lalos in Bechukosai, only materialized from the "Vav' (of "
Why does the Torah write only "Asher Tishm'u" in connection with the B'rachah, whereas in connection with the Kelalah it writes "Im Lo Sishme'u"?
Ba'al ha'Turim #1: Judging favorably, the Torah ascribes Yisrael listening to Hashem as being certain, and their sinning as only a Safek.
Ba'al ha'Turim #2: The term "Asher" also has connotations of 'Ashrei' - praiseworthy, as if to say 'How praiseworthy is the one who follows Hashem's instructions'. 1
Oznayim la'Torah: Because, once a person undertakes to perform a Mitzvah, it is considered as if he has performed it - even though he did not actually manage to do so; whereas regarding an Aveirah, he is not considered as having committed it until he sctually comits it.
Ba'al ha'Turim: As the Pasuk writes in Mishlei, 8:34. See also Torah Temimah, note 66.
Having written "Vesartem min ha'Derech", why does the Torah add "Laleches Acharei Elohim Acherim"?
Rashi: To teach us that whoever worships idols has deviated from the path that Yisrael were ordered to follow ? from which the Chachamim learned that 'If someone acknowledges idols, it is akin to denying the entire Torah'. 1
Riva: But Rashi himself wrote in Sh'lach L'cha Bamidbar, 15:23 - that we learn this from the Pasuk there "es Kol asher Tzivah Hashem"? See Torah Temmah, note 66.
QUESTIONS ON RASHI
Rashi writes in Toldos Bereishis, 27:29 that Yitzchak put the curse before the blessing whereas Bil'am in Balak Bamidbar, 24:9 put the B'rachah first, because Tzadikim first suffer and enjoy tranquility at the end, whereas with the Resha'im, it is the opposite. Similarly, Bereishis Rabah 66:4 explains that Yitzchak loved Yisrael, therefore he concluded with a Brachah, whereas Bil'am concluded with a curse. Then why here does the Torah write "ha'Berachah ve'ha'Kelalah", and why will the Brachos on Har Gerizim precede the Kelalos on Har Eival?
Refer to Bereishis 27:29:5:3-4 & 27:29:152:1-4 and notes.
