What does the Torah mean when it writes, "V'Achelu Es ha'Basar... Tzeli-Eish u'Matzos ... Yochelu'hu"?
Ramban #1: It means that one should eat the Pesach together with the Matzah. 1
Ramban #2: One should eat the Pesach as well as the Matzos.
As if it had written '... Tzeli-Eish uv'Matzos.' The Mitzvah to eat Matzah independently (when there is no Korban Pesach) is written in 12:18.
What does "ha'Basar" incorporate?
Pesachim 85a: It is confined to the meat that is on the bones - but does not include meat that is inside the bone (i.e. the marrow), seeing as the Torah (in 12:46) prohibits breaking the bones of a Korban Pesach.
See Torah Temimah, note 60.
One does not fulfil the Mitzvah of Korban if one eats any of these. Gur Aryeh - How is this derived? The verse could have said simply, 'they shall eat it,' which would include all parts of the animal. Rather, the Mitzvah to eat the Korban Pesach is limited to the meat.
What are the implications of "ba'Laylah ha'Zeh"?
Berachos 9a: "Ba'Laylah" teaches us that the Korban Pesach is eaten only at night, 1 and not on the previous day 2 like all other Korbanos.
Berachos 9a: "Ha'Zeh" implies that it may only be eaten for one night, and not additionally on the night of the sixteenth. 3
Tosefta, Pesachim, end of Perek 2: The Mitzvah begins at nightfall, extends the whole night, and it may not be eaten after that.
In fact, someone who eats a k'Zayis of Korban Pesach on the previous day transgresses an Aseh - because a Lav that emerges from an Aseh is an Aseh (Pesachim 41b)
Berachos (loc. cit.): We would otherwise have thought that since the Korban Pesach is a Shelamim - which is eaten in the night instead of in the day - it follows the rules of a Shelamim and may be eaten for two nights and one day.
Why must the Korban Pesach be eaten at night, if we left Egypt by day (see 12:41, 51?)
Maharal (Gevuros Hashem Ch. 36, p. 135): Makas Bechoros struck specifically at night, the time of Hefsed (destruction). That is when the Egyptians' power over us disappeared. 1
Also refer to 12:12:2:1*.
What does the Torah mean when it adds, "Al Merorim Yochelu'hu"?
Ramban: "Al" has the same connotations as 'Im' (with). See for example, Shemos 35:22; and Rashi on the following Pasuk DH 'Rosho 'Al Kera'av.'
Ramban: Since, not only is there no Mitzvah to eat Maror on its own, but if one fails to eat it, one has nevertheless fulfilled the Mitzvah of eating the Korban Pesach - which is why the Torah did not write 'Im.'
What is the definition of "Merorim"?
Rashi: All bitter herbs 1 fall under the category of "Merorim."
Targum Yonasan: It is Tamcha and Uleshin. 2
Gur Aryeh (from Pesachim 39a): But how do we know it must be an herb? The Pasuk compares Matzah and Maror; just as Matzah is made from plants, so too must Maror be a vegetable.
These are two of the species mentioned in the Mishnah Pesachim (39a). Tamcha is identified as horseradish, and Uleshin as endives.
What is the symbolism of the Pesach, Matzah, and Maror? Why are the three eaten together?
Maharal #1 (Gevuros Hashem 1 Ch. 60, p. 264): We are unlike the heretics - who see multiplicity in the world (i.e., the various worldly forces, and the seeming contradiction raised by the existence of good and evil), and decide that there is more than one Prime Source. They say that from 'One,' cannot come 'many.' To reject this notion, we eat the Pesach - which indicates oneness - together with both the Matzah which indicates freedom, 2 and the Maror which represents slavery. We declare that Hashem is One - He strikes, and He also heals (see Devarim 32:39). 3
Maharal #2 (ibid.):The Pesach shows that Yisrael is Hashem's Portion. This relationship is what brings about both the Redemption (i.e. the Matzah 4 ) when Yisrael is whole; and slavery (the Maror) when we are deficient. 5
Maharal #3 (ibid. Ch. 36, p. 136): The Redemption came due to Hashem's oath to the three Avos, and so we invoke their merit. 6 Matzah corresponds to Avraham, who said "knead and make cakes (of Matzah)" (Bereishis 18:6). Additionally, just as Matzah contains no leavening, whereas Chametz does; Avraham was a Ger 7 - he separated himself from the nations and their "sourdough." 8 Maror represents Yitzchak, whose eyes dimmed, and who introduced the concept of suffering. The Pesach corresponds to Yaakov, who is compared to a Seh, 9 as in the verse, "Seh Fezurah Yisrael" (Yirmeyahu 50:17). 10
Maharal #4 (ibid.): According to the Midrash, the symbolism to the Avos is as follows - "An unblemished lamb" (12:5) represents Yitzchak, in whose stead a ram was offered. 11 "Roasted by fire" alludes to Avraham, who was cast into the fiery furnace. Maror corresponds to Yaakov, who was pursued by Esav. The Matzos represent Sarah, who kneaded cakes (of Matzah) for the Mal'achim. 12
Maharal #5 (ibid. Ch. 51, p. 220): These three Mitzvos represent the three stages in the process that Hashem told to Avraham at the Bris Bein ha'Besarim, "... Your offspring will be strangers in a land that is not theirs, (1) and they will enslave them and make them suffer... And the nation that they will serve, (2) I shall also judge; and afterwards (3) they will leave with great wealth" (Bereishis 15:13-14). Maror represents the suffering; Korban Pesach represents Makas Bechoros - which was Hashem's judgment against the Egyptians; and Matzah represents the subsequent Exodus and Redemption. These stages are interdependent - it was the great subjugation that brought the Redemption to Yisrael, and also the punishment upon those who had subjugated them. 13
Maharal also presents this idea briefly in Ch. 36, p. 134.
For the symbolism inherent in the Korban Pesach itself, see 12:3:6.3:1 at length; also 12:3:6.3:3. For the meaning of the Matzah, refer to 12:15:154 and 12:15:155.
Maharal (loc. cit.): Hashem is One; thus, He is everything. In fact, (on the contrary - ) it is because opposing elements are all from Him, that we see He encompasses everything. (In other words, the fact of Hashem's Oneness dictates that even contradictory forces must come from one source. - EK) Maharal (ibid. Ch. 5, p. 35) - When the Tahor emerges from the Tamei, it demonstrates Hashem's Oneness. See 12:3:6.3:3 and its note; as well as Bereishis 2:18:2.1:2 and Bereishis 15:7:151.1:2 and its notes.
See the preceding answer (12:8:2.2:1).
Maharal (ibid.): The Redemption stems from our being Hashem's portion; Hashem is called 'Elokei Ha'Elokim' - He rules over all forces and all nations. On the other hand, this is also what brings about exile. Each nation has its heavenly officer and angel, such that if one nation overpowers another, it is only temporary or happenstance. But Yisrael is under no intermediary angel, rather under Hashem alone. When Yisrael falls short of their true level, they actually fall under the hands of others.
See above, 12:3:6.1:1 and its note.
Maharal (ibid.): Mal'achim frequently visited Avraham, even eating with him. (Shemos Rabah 28:1 - When Moshe ascended on High to receive the Torah, Hashem made Moshe's facial appearance similar to that of Avraham, so that the Mal'achim would not harm him.) Avraham earned this though his Gemilus Chasadim. (Maharal derives this from the Gemara (Bava Metzia 59b), that care must be given towards a Ger, for he is liable to backtrack to his previous ways (Suro Ra). The term 'Suro' is related to 'Se'or' (leavening). Avraham himself was a Ger; so how was he able to overcome this Se'or and eliminate it? See Maharal (ibid. Ch. 5, p. 33) - Avraham was Taharah that came from Tum'ah; he was so completely apart and different from his ancestors and contemporaries, that he (alone) was even exempt from Kibud Av (refer to Bereishis 11:32:2.2:2, and Bereishis 15:7:.1:3). On the contrary - it was the wickedness of all the others, that brought about Avraham's righteousness. Avraham had no Se'or, because he was not building upon what he had received from his father and family - rather, he made himself into a newly-born person. This applies to Avraham alone, who initiated the concept of Geirus. All future converts are following in the footsteps of Avraham, father of all Geirim, such that they need not completely release themselves from their Gentile origins. Perhaps this also explains the continuation in Maharal - that Avraham specialized in Gemilus Chasadim. He was a Nosen (a giver) - the opposite of a taker - this reflected Avraham's essence, which he himself created, rather than taking that of his parents. - EK)
Chazal use "the sourdough in the dough" as a euphemism for the Yetzer ha'Ra (Berachos 17a). Also refer to 12:15:159. Maharal - (Derush l'Shabbos Ha'Gadol p. 224) - Thus, the three Matzos used at the Seder represent the three Avos, over whom the Yetzer ha'Ra had no control (Bava Basra 17a).
Maharal (ibid. Ch. 60, p. 272) adds that the Four Cups represent the four Imahos; refer to 6:6:3.1.
See 12:3:6.3:1 - The requirements that the Korban Pesach be a Seh, and be roasted, allude to Hashem's Oneness.
Maharal (loc. cit.): Why, according to this approach, is Sarah singled out among the Imahos? Avraham was primary among the Avos; as in the verse, "I called him Echad" (Yeshayah 51:2). Independent unity is possible only for Hashem; whereas a person can only achieve becoming "Echad" in cooperation with his spouse (as in Bereishis 2:24).
As explained above. Maharal (ibid. p. 221) - But the Matzah is what we recite Sipur Yetzi'as Mitzrayim over; Matzah represents freedom.
In the absence of a Korban Pesach, the Mitzvah of Maror is Mid'Rabanan (unlike Matzah, which is always Mid'Oraisa). How can this be explained, based on the symbolism of these Mitzvos (see the preceding question, 12:8:2.2)?
Maharal (Gevuros Hashem Ch. 60, p. 266): In essence, it would not be appropriate to eat Maror at the time [of year] that represents freedom! But together with the Korban Pesach, 1 we do eat Matzah and Maror - to show how everything is from Hashem, both the freedom and the slavery (alternatively, to show that it is our status as Hashem's portion, which causes both the freedom and the slavery). Refer to 12:8:2.2:1 and 12:8:2.2:2.
Maharal (ibid.): Nevertheless, mid'Rabanan we do eat Maror today. This is to indicate that the slavery and the freedom are in essence at one level. Also, it shows that from Hashem comes only good; only when there is deficiency by the recipient (i.e. man) does subjugation come about. (From Hashem's perspective, the Maror does not come alone, but only together with the Pesach - meaning that even the subjugation is ultimately to bestow good. But mid'Rabanan, the Maror can stand alone, as from the perspective of man there is deficiency in creation. - EK)
Why does the Torah write "Yochelu'hu" (in the singular)?
Mechilta: To teach us that if one does not have Matzah and Maror, one should nevertheless eat the Pesach. 1
Mechilta: And just as one is Yotzei the Pesach without Matzah and Maror, so too, is one Yotzei Matzah and Maror without the Korban Pesach. See Torah Temimah, note 68.
What is the significance of the implication that the Pesach must be eaten after the Matzah and the Maror?
Mechilta: It teaches us that the Pesach must be eaten 'al ha'Sova' - to complete one's satisfaction - but not the Matzah and the Maror.
Why did the Pesach have to be eaten roasted?
Ramban and Moshav Zekenim: In order to shame the Egyptians, who would inevitably smell their god roasting.
Rashbam: Because everything connected with the eating of the Korban Pesach was done in haste, ready to go out at any moment - and roasting meat takes less time than cooking it. 1
Maharal: Refer to 12:3:6.3:1, section G.
What is the significance of the Maror?
