1)

Why does the Torah insert the (otherwise superfluous) word "ve'Im Nekeivah Seileid"?

1.

Nidah, 40a: To incorporate a Tumtum and an Androginus in the Din of Tum'as Leidah. 1


1

Since we would otherwise have thought that it requires Zachar Vaday and Nekeivah Vada'is (Torah Temimah).

2)

Why does the Torah insert the(otherwise superfluous) word "Ve?Tam?h Shev?ayim ke'Nidasah"?

1.

Nidah, 36b: In order to Darshen "ke'Nidasah", 've'Lo ke'Zivasah' - If the pains of childbirth cause her to see blood during the days of Nidus, she is Tamei, but not if it happens during the eleven days of Zivus. 1


1

Nidah, 38b: And from the word "Teishev", we learn that the same concession regarding the Dam Zivus extends to the sixty-six days of Taharah for a girl - See Torah Temimah, note 41,who explains how that is possible.

3)

What are the implications of the word ?Teisheiv al-D?mei Taharah??

1.

Refer to 12:5:2:1 and note.

4)

Why does the Torah say "bi'Demei [Taharah]" regarding a boy, and "Al Demei" regarding a girl?

1.

Moshav Zekenim citing the Rosh: She always has thirty-three days of Dam Tohar after a boy, but sometimes she does not have sixty-six Y'mei Tohar after a girl, e.g. if she miscarried during these days. 1


1

There is no Tum'as Leidah for a miscarriage within Y'mei Tohar of a boy, for within 40 days it is not considered a fetus. (PF)

5)

What do we learn from the 'Vav' of "ve'Im Nekeivah Seiled"?

1.

Moshav Zekenim: It includes where she gives birth to a Tumtum or Androginus (a Safek Zachar or Nekeivah), where she must be stringent to observe the days of Tum'ah for a Yoledes Nekeivah, and the days of Tohar for a male (which now end on day forty, even though she was forbidden to her husband until the fifteenth).

Sefer: Perek: Pasuk:

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