When the Yoledes brings two birds, what determines which one is the Olah and which one, the Chatas?
Yoma, 41a: Either the Yoledes herself designates them when she takes or purchases) them - as the Torah states here "Velakchah Sh'tei Sorim ... ". or the Kohen, when he sacrifices them - as the Torah states in Metzora 15:15 - in connection with the Korban of a Zav "Ve'asah ha'Kohen Echad Chatas ve'Echad Olah". 1
See Torah Temimah, note 57.
Bearing in mind that a Chatas generally precedes an Olah (as in Vayikra, 5:8), why does the Pasuk give precedence here to the Olah?
Rashi: The precedence is only with regard to reading it in the Torah, but not with regard to bringing it. 1
Refer also to 12:8:151:1-5 and notes.
Why does the Yoledes require atonement?
Ramban #1 and Moshav Zekenim #1: It is to be purified from the filth that accumulates in the womb when she gives birth. After she has become cleansed, or after the time needed to form the baby, 1 she brings a Korban and becomes Tehorah, since 'Hashem heals all flesh and does wonders'.
Ramban #2 and Moshav Zekenim #2 (both citing Nidah, 31b): Because when women suffer labor pains, they tend to swear that they will never again be intimate with their husbands. 2
Da'as Zekenim: Here, and regarding a Metzora 3 , a house with Tzara'as, and a Zav, "ve'Chiper" is not an atonemen for sin; it is an expression of cleansing,
A vain Shevu'ah, seeing as she is obligated to her husband in this regard (See Ramban).
Da'as Zekenim: Although Tzara'as comes as a result of sins, the Tzara'as itself sufficed to atone. And even though the Chachamim taught that a Yoledes swears not to be intimate with her husband, the Pesukim imply that her Korban is not brought to atone for a sin.
How will we reconcile this Pasuk, which implies that a Tamei person becomes Tahor only after bringing his Korban, with the Pasuk in Emor, 22:6, which implies that the criterion lies in Tevilah,and with the Pasuk there, 22:7, which implies that one needs to wait until nightfall in order to become Tahor?
Yevamos, 74b: Tevilah renders a person Tahor to eat Ma'aser Sheini, nightfall, to eat Terumah, whereas a Korban permits him to enter the Beis-Hamikdash and to eat Kodshim. 1
See Torah Temimah, note 58.
Why does the Torah add the (otherwise superfluous) word "Vetaheirah"?
Zevachim, 10b: To teach us that, until now, he was (still partially) Tamei (Mechusar Kipurim). Consequently, if he received the blood of a Korban, 1 the Korban is Pasul. 2
Yerushalmi Shabbos, 1:3: To teach us that Nekiyus (being cleansed from sin) 3 - hinted in the words "Vechiper alav ha'Kohen" - leads to Taharah.
What are the implications of "ve'Im Lo Simtza Yadah Dei Seh"?
Moshav Zekenim: It implies that we do not instruct her to borrow or to engage in a trade in order to bring a Korban Ashir.
QUESTIONS ON RASHI
Rashi writes that the Olah is first only l'Mikra'ah. What does this mean?
R. Chaim Paltiel, Riva #1, Moshav Zekenim #1: She is Makdish the Olah before the Chatas. 1 A support is "v'Lakchah Shtei Torim? Echad l'Olah v'Echad l'Chatas" - she buys the Olah first. Another Pasuk (5:8) says "v'Hikriv Asher la'Chatas Rishonah" to teach that Chatas is always offered first (Zevachim 90a).
Riva #2: B'Mikreh, if she happened to offer the Olah first, it is Kosher b'Di'eved. l'Chatchilah, the Chatas must be first, like it says in Pesachim (59a).
Hadar Zekenim, citing R. Yechi'el of Paris: It is Mikreh (just happened to occur). An Ashirah brings a lamb, and a poor woman - if she can bring two Torim or two Bnei Yonah, she does so.
Torah Temimah: It is referring to reading the Parshah when there is no Beis-Hamikdash and one cannot actually bring the Korbanos. 4
Bartenura: This is because here, Olas ha'Of is in place of Olas Behemah. Elsewhere, both birds are in place of Chatas Behemah, so Chatas ha'Of is Hukdash first. Gur Aryeh - this is wrong. Also regarding Hekdesh, it says (Zevachim 89a) that Chatas is first! Also, it does not say li'Kri'asah, rather, l'Mikra'ah (its Pasuk)! (Riva? must say that a Yoledes is an exception. I do not understand Bartenura's reason why here, Olas ha'Of is Hukdash first. Chatas ha'Of comes before even Olas Behemah (ibid.)! - PF)
Toras Moshe: Chatas is first because it atones. In this world, Chavah's curse applies to a Yoledes, so she swears amidst pain, and needs Kaparah. In the world to come, this will not apply, and Chatas will be only to be Metaher. Therefore, Olah is read first.
Moshav Zekenim - Chatas is last, so it will be next to "v'Chiper ha'Kohen." The Olah is a mere gift. However, we find that Olah atones for an Aseh, or a Lav ha'Nitak l'Aseh, or sinful thoughts! (Perhaps when it comes with Chatas, the Chatas atones, and the Olah is a mere gift. - PF)
See Torah Temimah, note 57.
Rashi writes that the Chatas is offered first. A Mishnah in Kinim (2:5) says that if a woman brought her Olah and died, her heirs do not bring her Chatas?
Moshav Zekenim: It discusses a Metzora'as. 1 Pesachim 59b says that her Olah comes first.
Moshav Zekenim citing R. Chaim: The case is, she did improperly; b'Di'eved, thelah is Kosher.
Moshav Zekenim, citing Shmuel Tzarfasi: This cannot be. The Sifra says that it discusses a Yoledes! (I did not find such a Sifra, but also the Rosh (Kinim, Sof Perek 2) cites it. - PF)
