What are the implications of the word "Shim?u Na Devarai"?
Rashi, Targum Onkelos and Targum Yonasan: "Na" is a Lashon of request. 1
And 'Amirah' ("Vayomer ... ") one of supplication (Rashi in Pasuk 1). See Sifsei Chachamim.
Why did Hashem insert the (otherwise superfluous) phrase "Shim'u Na Devarai?"
Oznayim la'Torah: Following Hashem calling Miriam and Aharon together with Moshe (Refer to 12:4:3:1*), He now had to speak to them directly, 1 so He announced "Shim'u Na Devarai" thereby enabling them to hear His words in the daytime with all their faculties intact - in honor of Moshe.
Oznayim la'Torah: Since for obvious reasons, the Dibur could not come to them through Moshe.
How does the word "Hashem" fit into the Pasuk?
Rashi, Ramban (citing Targum Onkelos) and Targum Yonasan: The Pasuk reads 'If you will have prophets, 1 then I Hashem, will make Myself known to them'. 2
Ramban (citing the Ibn Ezra): What the Pasuk means is that 'Even if your prophets will be prophets 3 of Hashem, 4 they will not prophecy by My Great Name 'Hashem', only by a vision or by riddles', as opposed to Moshe. 5
Seforno: Hashem only appeared to the prophets with the Name of Hashem in a vision, when they were asleep. 6
Targum Yonasan: With reference to all the prophets since the creation of the world.
See also Ikar Sifsei Chachamim.
Ramban: As if it had repeated the word 'Navi' - like we find in Divrei ha'Yamim 2, 15:8.
Ramban: Seeing as there are many prophets who do not reach even that level, but who prophecy merely with Ru'ach ha'Kodesh, such as David - as in Shmuel 2, 23:2.
See Ramban DH 'ba'Mar'ah Eilav Esvada'.
Seforno: As we find by Yeshayah - in Yeshayah 6a, and by Michayahu - in Melachim 1, 22:19, and by Bil'am, who was awake but whose vision was with the Name of Elokim - See 23:4.
What is the difference between "Mar'ah" in this Pasuk and "Mar'eh" in Pasuk 8?
What are the connotations of "ba'Mar'ah Eilav Esvada"?
Ramban and Seforno: It means that other prophets prophecy by means of a vision whilst they are asleep 1 and not via the Name Hashem whilst they are awake. 2
Da'as Zekenim and Hadar Zekenim: It means that Hashem speaks with him through a parable.
Hadar Zekenim: It is like one who sees in a mirror, who does not see the object itself.
Ramban: See Ramban, DH 've'Lashon Sifri' and 've'Inyan ha'Kasuv', who reconciles this with the Midrash, which equates Shmuel with Moshe regarding prophecy.
Ramban: This is similar to the first Pasuk in Va'eira "Va'eira el Avraham ... be'Keil Shakai, u'Shemi Hashem Lo Nodati lahem", where the Torah describes Moshe's superiority over the prophets that preceded him, and which it reiterates at the end of the Torah (in ve?Zos ha'Berachah Devarim, 34:10) in connection with the prophets that came after him.
How will we reconcile this Pasuk "ba'Chalom Adaber bo" with the Pasuk in Zecharyah, 10:2 "va'Chalamos Shav Yedaberu"?
B'rachos, 25b: #1: When Shmuel would have a bad dream he would declare 'Dreams speak falsely!' and when he had a good dream he would ve'Chi ha'Chalamos Shav Yedaberu?" Does the Torah not say "ba'Chalom Adaber bo"? 1
B'rachos, 25b #2: The Pasuk in Zecharyah is referring to a dream via a demon; the current Pasuk to a dream via an angel. 2
Why is Hashem telling them how Moshe's prophecy is different?
Da'as Zekenim and Moshav Zekenim: 'You said that Hashem spoke also with you. You should know that your prophecy is different than his!'
What does it mean "I speak with other Nevi'im in a dream"?
Ramban and Sifri Zuta: It means literally 'in a dream'. 1
Rikanti: At the time of prophecy, they lose [control over] their faculties.
Da'as Zekenim: [The prophecy] is like a dream that needs interpretation.
Throughout Tanach, it connotes that Hashem spoke with Nevi'im while they were awake - here, and Shmuel's first prophecy (Shmuel 1 3:4-9). If it had been during a dream, Shmuel would not have come to Eli and say "Hineni", and Eli would not have told him how to answer Hashem in his dream! No'ach did not sleep the entire year in the ark (Yelamdenu, Bereishis, 37), and Hashem told him to leave! (PF)
