How will we reconcile "be'Achad Shevatecha" with reference to Binyamin here with "mi'Kol Shivteichem ", in Pasuk 5?
Rashi: Although the Beis-Hamikdash was built in the portion of the tribe that Hashem chose, 1 when David ha'Melech came to purchase the granary (the location where it was to be built) from Aravnah ha'Yevusi, he paid with gold that he claimed from all the tribes.
According to the opinion that Yerushalayim was distributed among the tribes and fell to the lot of Binyamin. See Sifsei Chachamim.
Which tribe is the Torah referring to?
Rashi: It is referring to Binyamin, the tribe in whose portion (the main part of) the Beis-Hamikdash will be built.
What are the connotations of "ve'Sham Ta'aseh ..."? What is it coming to incorporate?
Zevachim, 107b: "Ta'aseh" incororates Shechitah and Zerikah.
Why does the Torah write "ve'Sham Ta'aseh" and not 've'Sham Tizbach ve'Tizrak'?
Zevachim, 107b: To teach us that someone who both Shechts Kodshim and sprinkles the blood ba'Chutz is only subject to one set of Malkos. 1
Zevachim (Ibid.): As opposed to someone who sprinkles the blood of the animal and sacrifices it, who is subject to two sets of Malkos - since the Torah separates them. See Torah Temimah, note 44.
Why does the Torah repeat the word "ve'Sham"?
Zevachim, 107a: To compare the Asiyah (the Shechitah and the Zerikah) to the Ha'ala'ah, in that - just as by Ha'ala'ah (burning on the Mizbe'ach), the Torah issues a warning (in Pasuk 13) for the punishment to take effect, 1 so too, does a warning apply to the Asiyah ? even though it is not explicitly written.
Zevachim, 118a: To compare the Asiyah (the Shechitah) to the Ha'ala'ah, in that ? just as Ha?ala?as Chutz is Asur, so too is Shechitas Chutz Asur ? even though, in Pasuk 13, the Torah wrote ?Hishamer l?cha Pen Ta?aleh Olosecha ? ?, implying that Shechitas Chutz is permitted.
See Acharei-Mos Vayikra, 17:4.
Why does the Torah repeat the phrase "asher Anochi Metzveka" - which it inserted in Pasuk 11?
