Why does the Pasuk use the word "Shafal" and not "Amok" (See Rashi) as it did in Pasuk 3?
Ramban (in Pasuk 3): Because, since the Nega is a mixture of white and red and not pure white, it does not appear as deep as a Baheres on plain skin, which is pure white.
Hadar Zekenim and Da'as Zekenim (both on Pasuk 3): "Shafal" means recessed into the skin. 1
Riva (on Pasuk 3): If it discusses the depth of the Nega, it should have omitted the word "Mar'ehah"?
Why does the Torah insert the (otherwise superfluous) phrase "Nega Tzara'as Hi"?
Ramban (on Pasuk 3): To teach the Kohen that he should immediately declare it Tamei, since it is a plague that will definitely turn into Tzara'as.
Sifra: Having taught us - in Pasuk 19 - that in a Sh'chin, a Se'eis is Tamei via a white Nega, and a Baheres, via a combination of white and red, X it teaches us that the other way round is also considered a Si'man Tum'ah.
Seeing as the Torah is discussing the Dinim of Sh'chin, why does it need to inser the word "ba'Shechin Parachah"?
Sifra: 'To preclude where the Nega spreads from the Sh'chin to healthy flesh or to the skin of a burn spreads the skin of regular Basar or of a Michvah.
Why is a Michyah inside the Sh'chin or the Michvah not a Si'man Tum'ah?
