Why does the Torah use the double expession "ve'Im Pasoh Sifseh"?
Sifra #1: To teach us that, if the Nega spreads on the eighth, ninth or tenth day it is also Tamei. 1
Sifra #2: To teach us that, if after having declared the Nega Tamei, the the white hairs or the Pisyon disappear and return, he is Tamei, and the same apply should this occur after any of the stages of Tum'ah - after the first or second week, or after he was already declatred Tahor.
See Torah Temimah, note 102.
What is the word "ve'Timei ha'Kohen oso" coming to preclude?
Sifra: From the word "oso" (as opposed to 've'Tim'o") we learn that the Kohen may only declare the Metzora Tamei if he is sure that it is a Nega, but not if there is a Safek. 1
Provided there is no Chezkas Tum'ah ? See Torah Temimah, note 104, who elaborates. See also Oznayim la'Torah, in Pasuk 39.
Why does the Torah insert the (otherwise superfluous) words "Nega Hu"?
Ramban: Refer to 13:20:2:1.
