1)

Bearing in mind that "ve'ha'Tzaru'a" in the following Pasuk, comes to include a woman, why does the Torah write "Ish Tzaru'a ... "?

1.

Sotah. 23b: To preclude a woman from Peri'ah and Perimah (in the following Pasuk) exclusively. 1


1

See Torah Temimah, note 177.

2)

Why does the Torah add the words "Tamei Yetam'enu ha'Kohen"?

1.

Rashi: To include all other Tum'os - in addition to Nesakim - in the Dinim recorded in the following Pasuk.

3)

What are the implications of the words "be'Rosho Nig'o"?

1.

Oznayim la'Torah #1 (citing commentaries): If his head is smitten, it is a sign that he had false Hashkafos (views that clash with Torah-ideoligy), based in the head 1 or it hints at idolatrous thoughts (and Avodah-Zarah is referred to as 'Rosh'. 2

2.

Oznayim la'Torah #2: The fact that his hair had fallen out was a warning signal that his head had now become a location that was subject to Tum'as Nega'im. 3


1

Oznayim la'Torah: Which explains why the Torah concludes with such forceful and multiple expressions - specifcally here.

2

Sanhedrin, 107a.

3

Refer to 13:44:2:1*.

Sefer: Perek: Pasuk:

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