What are the implications of theword "ve'Im Dal Hu"?
Erchin,17a: It implies that a rich man who makes a Neder to bring the Korban of a Metzora must bring the Korban of a rich Metzora, even if the Metzora in question is actually poor. 1
Erchin,17b: It implies that it is only in the case of a poor Metzora that we do not go after the Metzora's status, but not if he is rich. 2 Consequently, a rich man who makes a Neder to bring the Korban of a poor Metzora must bring the Korban of a rich Metzora.
Why does the add (otherwise superfluous) phrase "ve'Ein Yado Maseges?
Erchin 17a: To permit a poor man who makes a Neder to bring the Korban of a Metzora who is poor to bring the Korban of a poor Metzora. 1
Sifra: To teach us that, even though a rich man wealth decreased
See Torah Temimah, note 93.
Now that the Torah writes "ve'Ein Yado Maseges",why does it also need to write "ve'Im Dal Hu"?
Sifra: To teach us that if the rich Noder posseses but cannot find buyers, he is nevertheless obligated to bring the Korban of a rich Metzora
Why does the Torah insert the (otherwise superfluous) word "Keves Echad"?
Sifra: In order not to learn from the poor Tamei Mikdash, who also has the option of bringing a smaller Korban
See Torah Temimah, note 97.
Bearing in mind that atonement comes about only through sprinkling the blood, why does the Torah write "Tenufah Lechaper"?
Yoma,5a: To teach us that, if the owner treats theTenufah as if it was the remnant of a Mitzvah and fails to perform it, it is as if he has not been atoned for, 1 even though, in fact, he does attain it.
See Torah Temimah, note 98.
Why does the Torah write "ve'Isaron So'les Echad", and not juxtapose "Echad" to "Isaron"
Menachos: To teach us that each Isaron that he brings requires a Log of oil. 1
See Torah Temimah, note 99.
Why does the Torah place "le'Minchah" before the Log Shemen, instead of after it where it belongs?
Menachos, 89a: To teach us that someone who undertakes to bring a Minchah must bring the amount of flour that is required to mix with a Log of oil
Why does the Torah insert the (Otherwise superfluous) word ve'Isaron So'les Echad"?
Rashi: To teach us that the Isaron of flour is the Minchas Nesachim of the "Keves Echad" mentioned earlier in the Pasuk. 1
Presumably, this is because we might otherwise have thought that it comes as an independent Korban to make up for the deficiency of one of the two lambs of a Metzora Ashir
What purpose does the Log Shemen serve?
Refer to 14:10:3:1.
Seeing as the Log Shemen is equivalent to that of the Metzora Ashir, why does the Torah see fit to mention it?
Sifra: Because, since an Ashir brought three lambs and an Ani only one, had the Torah not prescribed a Log, a third of a Log would have sufficed.
