Why does the Pasuk not begin with "Dabru el B'nei Yisrael" - as it does in the Parshah of Zavim, later, in 15:2?
Ramban #1: Because it is self-understood that Moshe and Aharon would pass the laws of Tzara'as Batim on to Yisrael. 1
Ramban #2: The Torah is currently concerned that Moshe and Aharon should learn the Dinim of Tzara'as and teach them to the Kohanim. Moshe intended to warn Yisrael later 2 before they entered the Land. 3
Bearing in mind that the Pasuk inserted "be'Veis Eretz Achuzaschem", which applies to all the people (Ramban). Refer also to 13:1:1:1*. See also Ba'al ha'Turim, 15:2.
Ramban: See Ki Seitzei, Devarim 24:8.
This implies that the laws of Tzara'as would not come into effect before they entered Eretz Yisrael (See R. Chavel's footnotes and Yoma 14a, cited by the Torah Temimah).
What are the implications of "Eretz Cana'an"?
Sifra: It implies the land thatlies on the west side of the River Yarden
Why does the Torah add the phrase "Asher Ani Nosein lachem"?
Sifra: To preclude Amon and Mo'av, which were not given to them as an inheritance. 1
This is difficult however, a. because they circumvented Amon and Mo'av, and did not even enter their land, and b. why is it not included in the previous D'rashah?
Why does the Torah add the (otherwise superfluous) word "la'Achuzah"?
Yoma, 14a: To preclude houses in Eretz Cana'an in which they lived prior to the seven years of conquest
Refer also to 14:35:1.1:1.
Why does the Torah write "ve'Nasati Nega Tzara'as", and not simply "Ki Sih'yeh Nega Tzara'as"?
Rashi: In order to introduce the good news that Tzara'as on the houses in Eretz Cana'an would result in having to demolish them - and find the treasure that the Cana'anim had hidden there during the forty years that Yisrael were.in the desert.
Ramban: It is to stress that Tzara'as Batim, like Tzara'as Begadim, belongs entirely to the realm of the supernatural. 1
Moshav Zekenim: The Pasuk alludes to Bayis Rishon and Bayis Sheni. "Asher Lo ha'Bayis" is Hashem. The Kohen is Yirmeyah (but below, it refers to Hashem). "K'Nega" is idolatry
Ramban (13:4): When Yisrael were on a high level the spirit of Hashem rested with them constantly, to ensure that their bodies, their clothes and their houses remained in good shape. That is why, when someone sinned, he was stricken with one of the categories of Tzara'as to demonstrate that Hashem had departed from him, as the Torah indicates here (that it is a stroke delivered by Hashem on that room). And it is by the same token that Tzara'as Batim is confined to Eretz Yisrael - because it is Hashem's chosen country in which His Shechinah rests (see Ramban, who elaborates further). Refer aleo to 13:51:1:1*.
Da'as Zekenim: See the difference between you and the nations! It says "va'Ynaga Hashem Es Pharaoh [v'Es Beiso" - Bereishis 12:17]! Similarly, when Yisrael sinned, and Hashem wanted to exile them, he brought Sancheriv on the nations, so Yisrael would see a repent - "Hichrati Goyim
Why does Tzara'as not occur nowadays?
Ramban: Refer to Bamidbar, 5:21:5:1*.
Refer to 14:2:151:1*.
For which sin does Nig'ei Batim atone?
Rashi (in Sukah, 56b): It atones for stinginess. 1
Targum Yonasan: It atones for theft.
When people would ask the owner to lend them Keilim, he would pretend not to possess them. That is why he now had to take all his Keilim out of the house, for everyone to see what he really owned (Erchin, 16a). See also Torah Temimah, note 111, DH 've'Omnam'.
What are the connotations of "Bayis"?
Sotah, 3b: Only a house 1 that measures at least four by four Amos falls under the category of "Bayis".
Bear in mind that in the current context, 'Bayis' refers to a room.
What are the implications of "be'Veis Eretz"?
Sifra: 'A house on land'
See Torah Temimah, note 114.
What are the implications of the word "Achuzaschem"?
Yoma, 11b: 'Whatever is in your possession'
Which has dwelling quarters for for the Shamash or the Chazan
QUESTIONS ON RASHI
Rashi writes that Tzara'as on a house was good tidings. The Mishnah (12:6) says 'woe to a Rasha, and woe to his neighbor'!
Perhaps in some cases it was good tidings, and at other times, 'woe to a Rasha, and woe to his neighbor.' (PF)
Rashi writes that Tzara'as on a house is good tidings. What is good about Tzara'as on a garment?
Moshav Zekenim citing the Rosh, Hadar Zekenim: Hashem commanded to destroy things used to serve idolatry. People did not always know that garments were used for idolatry, so Hashem would send a Nega. 1
Moshav Zekenim said that Hashem strikes property first, so the sinner will repent before his body is stricken. A house is a greater loss than a garment, and it is a great hardship to clear out and leave one's house (especially when it is cold)! (PF)
This explains Nega'im only in garments that used to belongs to the Nochrim! (PF) (What was the basis of the question? Perhaps we expound that Tzara'as on a house was good tidings because it says "v'Nasati", an expression of a gift!)
