Why does the Torah punctuate the word "ba'Dever", with a 'Kamatz' (the pestilence)?
Oznayim la'Torah: Because it refers to the pestilence that they themselves asked for, when they said "ba'Midbar ha'Zeh Lu Masnu!" And that is precisely what Hashem now gave them - and just as they requested, they would not fall by the sword and their wives and children would not be taken captive.
What is the meaning of "ve'Orishenu"?
Rashi (citing Targum Onkelos) and Targum Yonasan: It means "And I will destroy them".
Seforno: It means 'I will (kill them and) cause them to bequeath their wealth to their children'. 1
Seforno: Based on the principle 'Meisim Yorshim es ha'Chayim', so that the generation that left Egypt will not lose their portion in Eretz Yisrael - in keeping with the Pasuk in Va'eira Sh'mos, 6:8 "Venasati osah Lachem Morashah". See Torah Temimah on Pinchas, 26:55, note 55.
Why did Hashem need to inform Moshe that He would make him into a greater nation than them?
Rashi: To avoid the question what would happen to the promise that Hashem made to the Avos.
Oznayim la'Torah: Because at Har Sinai, following the episode with the Golden Calf, when Hashem told him that He would annihilate Yisrael and make him into a great nation, Moshe argued that a chair of three legs cannot stand, how can a chair of one leg stand. 1 Therefore Hashem added the word "Gadol ve'Atzum mimenu", intimating that He would make Moshe the fourth leg, in which cse he would be able to stand.
