Why does the Torah repeat the word "ha'Kesef"?
Bava Metzi'a, 45a: To permit redeeming some of the copper P'rutos 1 with which one redeemed Ma'aser sheini with silver ones - to lighten the weight.
See Torah Temimah, citing Bava Metzi'a, 45a, and note 67.
What are the implications of the words "be'Chol asher Te'aveh Naf'sh'cha"?
Bartenura Ma'aser Sheini, 1:2: It implies that one may only redeem Ma'aser Sheini with coins that are considered currency in that country. 1
See Torah Temimah, note 68.
Why does the Torah use such an excessive expression - "be'Chol asher Te'aveh Nafsh'cha" and "u've'Chol asher Tish'alcha Nafshecha"?
Rashi (in the Beraisa of R. Yishmael): To teach us a K'lal u'Perat u'Kelal: K'lal - "be'Chol asher Te'aveh Nafshecha", u'P'rat - "ba'Bakar u'va'Tzon, ba'Yayin u'va'Sheichar", u'Kelal - "u've'Chol asher Tish'alcha Nafshecha" - to preclude anything that is not a living creature or is not a fruit from a fruit 1 that grows from the ground or that is not fit for human consumption, from being eligible to be purchased with the money of Ma'aser Sheini.
See Torah Temimah, note 69.
Why does the Torah need to specify "Bakar, Tzon, Yayin and Sheichar"?
Refer to 24:26:1:1.
Eruvin, 6b: To teach us that, when purchasing them to bring as a Shelamim, one is permitted to include in the purchase the skin together with the bull, 1 the wool together with the lamb, the jar together with the wine and the 'Temed' (inferior wine made from wine-dregs) after it has turned sour. 2
What is the significance of the juxtaposition of " Ve'achalta" to "Sheichar"
Yoma, 76a: Because in the language of the Torah, Achilah incorporates drinking. 1
See Torah Temimah, Acharei-Mos,17:12, citing Yerushalmi Yoma, 8:3 and note 48.
What sort of Simchah is the Pasuk referring to?
Yerushalmi Chagigah, 1:2: It is referring to a Korban Shelamim, 1 which we learn via a Gezeirah Shavah "Ve'samachta" "Ve'samachta" in Dwvarim 27:7 - in connection with the Korbanos that they brought on Har Gerizim and Har Eival.
See Torah Temimah, note 73.
Why does the Torah add "Atah u'Veisecha"?
Rashi (in Eruvin, 27a): To include women in the Mitzvah of Ma'aser Sheini.
Yevamos, 6b: Because a man cannot celebrate without a wife - from which we can extrapolate that a man without a wife lives without Simchah. 1
Yerushalmi Pesachim, 8:1: To teach us that a man can bring a Korban on behalf of his wife 2 even without her knowledge.
Why does the Torah use the term "Atah u'Veisecha" rather than "Atah ve'Isht'cha"?