1)

In which way are Mishkav and Moshav more stringent than Maga?

1.

Rashi: Whereas the former become an Av ha'Tum'ah15 which is Metamei Adam and the clothes he is wearing, the latter only becomes a Rishon, which is only Metamei food and drink. 1


1

See also Sifsei Chachamim.

2)

What are the implications of "ve'Ish asher Yiga ... "?

1.

Sifra: It implies that Adam who touches a Mishkav or Moshav is subject to Kibus Begadim, but not one Mishkav which touches another Mishkav. 1


1

See Torah Temimah, note 22.

3)

Why does the Torah write "asher Yiga' with refard to Mishkav, and "ve'ha'Yoshev ... " with regard to Moshev?

1.

Oznayim la'Torah: Because a person generally makes his bed before lying down on it


1

Oznayim la'Torah: As far as Tum'as Mishkav and Moshav are concerned however, they share exactly the same Din.

4)

Why does the Torah write "ve'Ish asher Yiga" (in the future - whereas in Pasuk 7 it writes "ve'ha'Noge'a"

1.

Sifra: To teach us that he only renders Tamei the clothes that he is wearing whilst he is touching the Mishkav or the Moshav, but not those that he puts on afterwards. 1


1

Because Adam ve'Keilim can only receive Tum'ah from an Av ha'Tum'ah, but not from a Toldah.

5)

Why does the Torah write "ve'Ish asher Yiga be'Mishkavo" and not "asher Yiga bahem"?

1.

Shabbos, 84a: To compare the Mishkav of the Zav to the Zav, inasmuch as just as he becomes Tahor by Toveling in a Mikvah, so too does his Mishkav.

2.

Bava Kama, 66b: To Darshen "be'Mishkavo", 've'Lo ha'Gazul'


1

See Torah Temimah, note 25.

2

See Torah Temimah, note 27.

Sefer: Perek: Pasuk:

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