Why does the Torah insert the (otherwise superfluous) words "ki Lo Yechdal Evyon mi'Kerev ha'Aretz'?
Ramban: Bearing in mind that "Efes ki Lo Yih'yeh b'cha Evyon" - in Pasuk 4 - refers to Eretz Yisrael exclusively, 1 the Torah here is referring to wherever one lives, even in Chutz la'Aretz, as does "be'Artzecha" at the end of the Pasuk. 2
See Pasuk 4.
Ramban: Similar to "be'Moshvoseichem" - in Bamidbar 35:29, which incorporates both Eretz Yisrael and Chutz la'Aretz.
Bearing in mind the Pasuk "Efes ki Lo Yih'yeh b'cha Evyon" - in Pasuk 4 - what are the implications of "Ki Lo Yechdal Evyon ... "?
Refer to 15:4:1:1-4 and notes.
Shabbos, 151b: It implies that there will always be Aniyim, even in the times of Mashi'ach, in which case the only difference between nowadays and the time of Mashi'ach is our subordination to the nations of the world which will come to an end with the coming of Mashi'ach. 1
See Torah Temimah, note 39.
Seeing as the Pasuk is referring to when Yisrael sin, since when does the Torah predict that Yisrael will sin?
Seforno: We find that it does in Ha'azinu, 3:29 "Ki Yada'ati Acharei Mosi ki Hashcheis Tishchisun!"
Rashbam: Based on the Pasuk in Koheles, 7:20 'For there is no such person who is righteous - who does only good and does not sin!' it is inevitable that they will.
What are the connotations of the word "Leimor"?
Rashi: It means that Moshe is offering Yisrael a sound piece of advice. 1
Why does the Torah insert the word "Paso'ch Tiftach es Yadcha le'Achicha <i>la'Aniyecha"?
Ramban #1: Because the Mitzvah of Tzedakah only applies to giving to a fellow Yisrael, but not to a Nochri. 1
Ramban #2 (citing the Sifri), Ibn Ezra and Targum Yonasan: In order to give precedence to one's relatives 2 over strangers. 3
Targum Yonasan: In order to give precedence to the poor of one's own town over the poor of other towns.
Why does the Torah add "le'Achicha la'Aniyecha u'le'Evyoncha be'Artzecha"?
Ibn Ezra: With reference to 15:11:4:2 -"Evyonei Artzecha" comes to give precedence to the destitute of one's own country before those of other countries.
?la?Aniyecha u?le Evyoncha be?Artzecha?. Seeing as Tzedakah is a ?Mitzvah she?be?Gufo? - which has nothing to do with land - why does the Torah insert ?be?Artzecha? both at the beginning of the Parshah (in Pasuk #7) and here at the end, implying that the Mitzvah of Tzedaah applies predominantly in Eretz Yisrael?
R. Bachye #1: Because Tzedakah, like all Mitzvos are indeed meant to be performed in Eretz Yisrael 1 and we are obligated to perform them even in Chutz la?Aretz only so that we should not forget they - they should not be new when we return to Eretz Yisrael. 2
R. Bachye #2: With reference to ?Karvah Sh?nas ha?Shemitah ,,, : in Pasuk 9 - the Torah means ?even in your land? - despite the fact that, in the Sh?mitah, you already leave your land Hefeker for the poor to collect and waive their debts 3 - Kal va?Chomer in Chutz la?Aretz, bearing in mind that Tzedakah is a Mitzvah she?be?Gufo.
See R. Chavel?s footnotes DH ?she?Mitzvas Tzedakah?, citing the Rmban in Vayikra 18:25.
See R. Bachye ?ve?Ta?am ha?Parshah? on p. 340. who elaborates.
