Why does the Torah here write "va'Yarev ha'Am," whereas earlier (in 15:24 & 16:2) it wrote "va'Yilonu ha'Am"?
Ramban: Whenever the Torah uses the latter expression, it implies that Yisrael merely complained about their situation - "What shall we do?", "What shall we eat"? or 'What shall we drink?" Whereas the former is used when they made demands of Moshe; "Give us water, you and Aharon your brother!"
Based on the preceding answer (17:2:1:1), why, in the following Pasuk (17:3), does the Torah switch to "va'Yalen ha'Am"?
Ramban #1 (citing Ibn Ezra) and Targum Yonasan 1 : There were two groups. One came to quarrel with Moshe; the other, to test Hashem.
Ramban #2: When they began to make demands of Moshe, he immediately pointed out that Hashem was in charge and that it was to Him that they ought to turn. 2 So they withdrew their demands of Moshe and remained silent for a day or two until the water in their Keilim ran out, when they complained (va'Yalen) that they had nothing to drink (in their usual vociferous manner, but without demanding from Moshe).
Who translates "va'Yarev ha'Am" as "the Resha'im among the people strove;" and "va'Yalen ha'Am" as "the people complained."
Ramban: Indeed, their intention was to test Hashem - whether He was able to provide them with water, as the Torah testifies below (6:7), and Moshe immediately realized that.
The Gemara (Arachin 15a) counts this challenge to Hashem regarding water, as one of the ten Nisyonos that our forefathers tested Hashem in the wilderness (see Avos 5:4). What is their sequence; and why are they called "tests," rather than "sins"?
Refer to 16:3:2:1.
