1)

To whom are "Ervas Avicha" and "Ervas Imcha" referring?

1.

Rashi: They refer to his mother who is his father's wife, and his mother who is not his father's wife, 1 respectively. 2

2.

Ramban #1 and Moshav Zekenim #1 (both citing Sanhedrin, 54a): Both "Ervas Avicha" and "Ervas Achi Avicha" refer to the males (his father and his uncle) themselves. 3

3.

Ramban #2 and Moshav Zekenim #2: "Imcha Hi" reveals that both refer to the man's mother. Through incest with his mother, he performs two evil deeds - revealing both Ervas Av and Ervas Em.

4.

Targum Yonasan: They refer to a woman committing incest with her father 4 , and a man with his mother, respectively.

5.

Sanhedrin, 54a: "Ervas Avicha" refers to one's father, 5 and "Ervas Imcha", to one's mother - whom his father raped or seduced. 6


1

But whom his father raped or seduced (Sifsei Chachamim).See also Oznayim la'Torah who explains why Rashi interprets the Pasuk like R. Yehudah, and not like the Chachamim.

2

See Torah Temimah, note 22, who queries Rashi.

3

Over whom the sinner transgresses two La'avin (for which, be'Shogeg, he is obligated to bring two Chata'os - Sahedrin, 54b), one for this La'av, and one for "ve'es Zachar Lo Sishkav Mishk'vei Ishah" (in Pasuk 22). Ramban and Moshav Zekenim: If so, why did the Torah not place a second La'av on being intimate with one's son and brother? Perhaps it is more concerned for the honor of elders. (If so, when a man is intimate with his son, the son transgresses two La'avim, and the father only one! - PF)

4

See Yayin ha'Tov, who asks why the Torah here teaches also the woman's Isur, bearing in mind that the entire Parshah discusses the man's Isur.

5

See answer #1.

6

See answer #2 and Torah Temimah, note 23.

2)

Why does the Torah add "Imcha hi"?

1.

Ramban: To stress that, by committing incest with his mother, he has performed two evil deeds, Ervas Av and Ervas Eim. 1


1

It is not clear however, as to why we do not already know this from the Ramban's previous statement (Refer to 18:7:1:3).

3)

"Imcha Hi. Lo Segaleh Ervasah". Based on the first half of the Pasuk, why does the Torah not write 'Avicha ve'Imcha heim, Lo Segaleh Ervasam'?

1.

Oznayim la'Torah: Having in mind what king Yehoyakim's mother said to him, when he had relations with her - 'I am is mother your mother! What pleasure can you derive from the place from which you emerged?' - the Torah is stressing that having relations with one's mother is purely Lehachis (to anger Hashem).

Sefer: Perek: Pasuk:

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