Why does the Torah need to write "Kodesh Yih'yeh lach" regarding Kodshim that are Kodesh Kodshim?
Oznayim la'Torah: Because the first (the skin of the Olah) and the last (Gezel ha'Ger) of the five items just mentioned are Chulin, it needs to inform us that the three other items - that are eaten - remain Kodesh Kodashim even after the Kohen receives them and must br treated as such.
What does the Torah mean when it writes "be'Kodesh ha'Kodashim Tochlenu"?
Rashi and Seforno: It means that Kodshei Kodashim 1 must be eaten in the Azarah 2 exclusively 3 and only by male Kohanim.
Ramban #1 (citing the Sifri) and Zevachim, 63a: It means that, if the enemy have surrounded the Azarah, Kodshim (Kodshei Kodshim and the remainder of Menachos - Torah Temimah) may be eaten in the Heichal. 4
Ramban #2: It means that, after referring 5 to the above Korbanos as Kodshei Kodashim, they should be eaten with the Kedushah of Kodshei Kodshim 6 (and not with that of Kodshim Kalim), as regards both location 7 and time. 8
Mentioned in the previous Pasuk.
See Sifsei Chachamim. See also Ramban's objection to Rashi's explanation, and R. Chavel's footnotes that Rashi actually concurs with the Ramban's second explanation.
And not anywhere in Yerushalayim.
Ramban: It seems that it is permitted even in the Kodesh ha'Kodashim, if necessary. See also Torah Temimah, note 34.
In the previous Pasuk.
Ramban: Since the 'Beis of "be'Kodesh ... " means (not 'in' but) 'as'.
In the Azarah (and not anywhere in Yerushalayim).
For one day and one night (and not for two).
What is "Kol Zachar Yochal oso" referring?
