Having already informed us in Parshas Beshalach (Shemos 17:1) that they were in Refidim, why does the Torah write here "va'Yis'u me'Refidim"?
Rashi and Ramban: To compare their leaving Refidim to their arrival at Har Sinai - to teach us that their departure from Refidim, like their arrival at Har Sinai, 1 was accompanied by Teshuvah. 2
Seforno: It teaches us that they left Refidim with the express intention of arriving at Midbar Sinai where the Mountain of Hashem was situated, in order to receive the Torah.. 3
Oznayim la'Torah: Having interrupted their leaving between Refidim and their arrival at Har Sinai with the Parshah of Yisro and the judges, it needed to repeat that they arrived at Sinai from Refidim.
See Ramban's objection to the question. He therefore cites the Mechilta, which bases the question on the Pasuk in Bamidbar (33:15) which, in connection with the journeys and encampments of Yisrael in the desert, includes the one from Refidim to Har Sinai - so why 'repeat' it here?
Seforno: Which they knew because Hashem had told it to Moshe a year earlier at the Burning Bush. See Shemos 3:12.
"Va'Yavo'u Midbar Sinai, va'Yachanu ba'Midbar." Why doesn't the Torah use the standard format, 'va'Yis'u me'Refidim, va'Yachanu b'Midbar Sinai'?
Ramban: So excited were they in anticipation of receiving the Torah,, that the moment they entered the desert and saw Har Sinai in front of them, they encamped on the spot, 1 without searching for a suitable location to set up camp. 2
Ramban: There in the desert, or in Chorev, a barren area in front of the mountain.
This is strange, bearing in mind that their movements were determined by the Pillar of Cloud which they were bound to follow, as we learnt in Shemos (13:21)?
Having just said "Ba'u Midbar Sinai" (19:1), why does the Torah repeat it?
Ramban: Refer to 19:2:2:1 .
Oznayim la'Torah: To reach us that they had defeated Amalek, who had come to prevent Yisrael from receiving the Torah, and that they were now ready to receive it. 1
See Oznayim la'Torah.
Why does the Torah add the words "va'Yichan Sham Yisrael"?
Ramban #1: To teach us that they separated the Eirev Rav from their midst. 1
Ramban #2: In order to mention them in a dignified manner when they came to receive the Torah.
Ramban: Seeing as the Torah was given to Yisrael exclusively, as the following Pasuk clearly states.
Why does the Torah write "va'Yichan Sham Yisrael... " in the singular?
Rashi and Targum Yonasan: 'Like one man, with one heart!' 1
In contrast with all the other encampments, throughout the forty years, which were performed with strife (Rashi, citing the Mechilta). Oznayim la'Torah - Because the only thing that unifies Yisrael and turns them into a nation is Torah and their belief in One G-d ('Yisrael, Oraysa v'Kudsha-Berich-Hu Chad Hu'). See Oznayim la'Torah who elaborates at great length.
Seeing as the Torah is mentioning the mountain for the first time, why does it write "Neged ha'Har"?
Oznayim la'Torah: Because it is the mountain known as "Har Ha'Elokim," which Moshe told Yisrael about the mountain upon which Hashem had revealed himself to him, and on which He had commanded him to redeem them and bring them to Him and to worship Him on it.
QUESTIONS ON RASHI
Rashi writes that they left Refidim amidst Teshuvah. How doess this tally with the Mechilta, which states that Refidim is an acronym for 'Rafu Yadayim' (they were lax in Torah-study), and that is why Amalek came?
