What is the meaning of "Lo Sakifu Pe'as Roshchem"?
Rashi: It means that one may not level the hair in front of one's ears with the hair behind the ears and with the forehead, by shaving off the Pe'os completely. 1
See Sifsei Chachamim.
What is the definition of 'Pe'ah'?
Rashi: It means 'the end' or 'the edge' 1 - here it refers to the hair at the end of the head where it joins the hair of the jaws.
Rashi in Kidushin,in 35a): As we find ub Terumah, Sh'mos 27,9 & 12.
Seeing as the Pasuk continues "ve'Lo Sashchis" (in the singular), why does it write "Lo Sakifu" (in the plural)?
What does the La'av of "Lo Sashchis es Pe'as Zekanecha" entail?
Using a razor. See Rashi in Emor, 21:5. Moshav Zekenim (27:28): mi'de'Rabanan however, one may not cut with scissors as close to the skin as a razor, due to Mar'is Ayin (since it looks as if one has shaved with a razor), just like one may not put ashes on a wound, since it looks like a tattoo (Makos 21a).
Moshav Zekenim: Between the corners is permitted [according to the letter of the law], but it is forbidden due to Mar'is ha'Ayin (since it looks as if he transgressed). Also, we tell a Nazir to stay far [from a vineyard; also here, he must distance from transgression].
Rashi (Shevu'os 3a): Both ends of each jaw, and the chin. Rivan (Makos 21a) including the sides of the chin. Targum Yonason and the Rambam include the upper and lower jaw. Refer to 19:27:152:1. R. Chananel includes the ends of the mustache and the Adam's apple (Tur YD 181). Refer also to 19:27:153:1.
What are the implications of "Lo Sashchis"?
Why does the Torah juxtapose the La'av "Lo Sashchis" to that of "Lo Sakifu"?
Kidushin, 35b: To teach us that just as women are not subject to "Lo Sashchis," 1 so too, are they not subject to "Lo Sakifu". 2
Refer to 19:27:3.3:1.
See Torah Temimah, note 216. Citing Kidushin 35b, the Moshav Zekenim learns it from a Gezeirah Shavah from the B'nei Aharon.
What are the implications of "Pe'as Zekanecha"?
Kidushin, 35b: It implies "Zekanecha", 've'Lo Z'kan Isht'cha' - to teach us that women are not subject to the Isur of Hashchasas Zakan. 1
See Torah Temimah, note 218.
Why does the Torah consider the current acts sinful?
Seforno (in Pasuk 26): Because in deference to the honor of Hashem, one does not desecrate the bodies of His people, whom He sanctified to serve Him. 1
Ibn Ezra and Moshav Zekenim: Hair of the head and beard constitute Kavod ha'Adam; it is improper to destroy it.
Moshav Zekenim, citing R. Eliezer of Garmaiza: Hashem knew that later, Nochri priests would do so, so He commanded us not to do it, to distinguish between Tahor and Tamei.
Seforno, Pasuk 27-29: Since 'rounding the head' is something that is done by fools and drunkards and by priests; whereas shaving off the beard entails removing one's Hadras Panim (the aura of spirituality that a beard creates); cutting oneself and making a bald patch on one's head in mourning is overplaying death (as if there was no afterlife), whereas tattooing is adding a sign to one's body over and above the B'ris Milah, and designating one's daughter for prostitution defiles both her and himself - as the Torah indicates in 21:9. 2. This implies all hair of the head. Chazal discuss Heterim to shave the head (other than the sideburns) during Chol ha'Mo'ed (Mo'ed Katan 3:1)!
Why are all corners of the beard forbidden, seeing as it suffices to leave one corner of a field?
Refer to 19:9:153:1 and note.
Why does the Torah insert "es" before "Pe'as Zekenecha", but not before "Pe'as Roshchem"?
Moshav Zekenim (in Pasuk 27): Because "es" comes to include below the bottom lip - including the hair on the chin.
