What are the implications of "ve'Amdu Sh'nei ha'Anashim"?
Rashi (citing Shevu'os, 30a): It implies a. that women 1 (and Ketanim) are ineligible to testify 2 and b. that the witnesses are obligated to stand when testifying.
Shevu'os, 30a #1: We learn via a Gezeirah Shavah "Sh'nei" "Al-Pi Sh'nei Eidim, in Pasuk 14, that the Pasuk is referring to the two witnesses. 3
Shevu'os, 30a #2: It implies that it is a Mitzvah for the two litigants 4 to stand when presenting their case.
Bava Basra, 155b: It implies that Ketanim are ineligible to testify. 5
Seeing as "Sh'nei" always implies that the two are equal, in what respect is the Torah comparing the two litigants?
Why does the Torah insert the (otherwisewise superfluous) words "Asher lahem ha'Riv"?
Rashi: With reference to the two litigants, the Torah is teaching us that the obligation to stand extends to them as well. 1
Sifri: To teach us that the witnesses are only permitted to testify in the presence of the litigants. 2
R. Yehudah in a Beraisa in Shevu'os 30a, maintains that the Dayanim may seat both litigants, but they may not seat one and make the other one stand. Refer also to 19:17:1.1:1 and see Torah Temimah, note 63.
See Torah Temimah, note 61.
Why does the Torah insert the (otherwise superfluous) words "Ve'amdu ? Lifnei Hashem Lifnei ha'Kohanim"?
Rashi and R. Bachye: To teach us that one should stand in front of Beis-Din in awe as if one was standing in front of the Shechinah . 1
Ramban (on Pasuk 19): To indicate that when the litigants 2 and the witnesses stand before Beis-Din, they are standing before Hashem, who, in turn, stands with the Dayanim and guides them along the path of justice and truth.
Sanhedrin, 6b: To teach the witnesses that they should know before Whom they are standing and that He will punish them if they testify falsely. 3
Sanhedrin, 19a: When Yanai ha'Melech, who was being judged before Beis-Din, came and sat down, Shimon ben Shetach ordered him to stand up because he was standing, not before Beis-Din - but before the One Who created the world. 4
Yerushalmi Sanhedrin, 1:1 #1: When the litigants would come before R. Akiva for litigation, he would say to them 'Know before Whom you are standing, as the Pasuk states "ve'Amdu Sh'nei ha'Anashim Lifnei Hashem"; "Lifnei Hashem", 've'Lo Lifnei Akiva ben Yosef!'. 5
Yerushalmi Sanhedrin, 1:1 #2: I teaches us that, not only the two litigants must stnd, but so must one who asks Beis-Din a She'eilah in Halachah or Agadah.
Rashi and R. Bachye: As the Pasuk writes in Tehilim, 82:1 "be'Kerev Elokim Yishpot" (Hashem judges together with the Dayanim).
And the same applies to someone who comes before Beis-Din to ask a Halachah or a She'eilah. See Torah Temimah, citing the Yerushalmi Nedarim, 10:5.
See Torah Temimah, note 62, who, citing the Gemara, says the same about the Dayanim but based on the Pasuk in Tehilim, 82:1 "Elokim Nitzav ba'Adas Keil".
See Torah Temimah note 63.
See Torah Temimah, note 65.
"Ve'amdu Sh'nei ha'Anashim ? Lifnei Hashem". Seeing as the Pasuk is referring to Beis-Din, why does the Torah write "Lifnei Hashem" and not Lifnei Hashem Elokim"?
What are the implications of the words "asher Yih'yu ba'Yamim ha'Heim"?
Rashi: It implies that one must honor the judge of one's time, irrespective of the fact that he may not be as great as the Dayanim of former times. 1
Rashi (citing Rosh Hashanah, 25b): 'Yiftach be'Doro ki'Shemuel be'Doro'. Oznayim la'Torah: Because Hashem sits with the Dayanim when they judge - Refer to 19:19:2:2*, whoever they are.
