?Vay?hi ka?aaaasher Tamu ? Vayedaber Hashem elai ? ?. What is the significance of the sequence of these two Pesukim?
If Yisrael were in disgrace, why did Hashem not speak to Moshe with a Lashon of endearment?
Yerushalmi Ta?anis, 3:4: Because Hashem goes after the majority ? and if the leaders of Yisrael are among the minority, then they too must suffer. 1
Why does the Torah repeat the fact that those who died were 'men of war'?
QUESTIONS ON RASHI
Rashi writes that from the Meraglim and onwards, the Torah did not write "Vayedaber Hashem" until the generation died out. But we find "Vayedaber Hashem" a number of times during this period?
Rashi (in Ta'anis 30b): Hashem did not speak to Moshe mouth to mouth, but in visions of the night. 1
Rashbam (in Bava Basra, 121a) #1: When necessary, Hashem spoke to Moshe via an angel, or through the Urim ve'Tumim, but not directly.
Rashbam (Bava Basra 121a) #2: Hashem spoke to Moshe only when necessary.
R. Chaim Paltiel: Mitzvos were given with the Lashon "Vayedaber", but regarding other matters, the Torah wrote "va'Yomer". 2
Sifsei Chachamim: Rashi means that Hashem did not speak to Moshe with the words "Vayedaber Elai", which is a Lashon of love - to preclude "Vaydaber" S'tam, which is not.
The current editions of Chumash Rashi have the text in Rashi 'Lo Ne'emar be'Parshah Zu "Vayedaber" ... ', which answers the question admirably, since up to here in the Parshah of Devarim, we only find "Vayomer Hashem" and not 'Vayedaber Hashem'. 3
All the answers - except for answer 6 - explain why Hashem lowered the level of His communication with Moshe buqt do not explain why Rashi says that the Torah did not write "Vayedaber" without any condition.
We find Dibur regarding distancing from Korach and his congregation, taking staffs from the Nesi'im, speaking to the rock (Bamidbar 16:20,23, 17:9, 16, 20:7)! Perhaps he holds like the opinion that the episode wirh Korach preceded that of the Meraglim, and Mei Merivah preceded Matan Torah. Refer to Bamidbar 16:1:8:3, and to Bamidbar 14:22:151:3 and note (PF).
The question remains however, why the Torah used the term "Vayedaber Hashem" in the Parshiyos between Chukas and Devarim?
Rashi writes that "Vayedaber" is an expression of endearment. But Rashi himself states that it is an expression of harshness - refer to Bamidbar 12:1:1:1 and note)?
R. Chaim Paltiel: [Hashem's] Dibur towards Moshe implies endearment. Dibur of people is always harsh. 1
Riva: Rashi means that 'Dibur' is elaboration, which is a sign of endearment, like good friends who talk at length. Amirah on the other hand, is concise. 2
Gur Aryeh, R.S"R Hirsh (citing the Korban Aharon): There is no contradiction; Amirah is a mere message; it does not refer to the act of speaking. Dibur implies articulation of letters. It is forceful, but it also implies face to face contact.
Kli Yakar: Dibur is harsh. It shows endearment, for "es asher Ye'ehav Hashem Yochi'ach" (Mishlei 3:12).
Perhaps this is like R. Bachye, who explains that the Dibur to Moshe was be'Ispaklaryah ha'Me'irah - which does not apply to human speech. (PF)
Sometimes Hashem's Dibur was only two Pesukim. See for example, Sh'mos 6:10-12, and Amirah, nineteen - See Sh'mos 1-20. Perhaps Dibur is always longer, only the Torah does not record all of it. Or, "Vayedaber" intimates that Hashem said more than is written, whereas va'Yomer denotes that exactly these words were said.
