1)

Why does the Pasuk here mention "Beis Re'echa" before "Eishes Re'echa," but switch the order in Va'eschanan (Devarim 5:18)?

1.

Ramban (citing the Ibn Ezra): Because the Pasuk here follows the logical order, where a man first builds a house and then gets married, whereas in Va'eschanan, a. it follows the way of young men, who want to marry first before building a house; b. It follows the order of severity - since desiring another man's wife is more severe than desiring his house.

2.

Maharal: See below, 20:14:1.2:1, letter a.

2)

Why need the Torah repeat the words "Lo Sachmod" - for his fellow's house, and again for his wife, etc.?

1.

Maharal (Tif'eres Yisrael, end Ch. 42, p. 130): His house gets an independent prohibition, because a house is the prerequisite for the other acquisitions mentioned here. Without a house, how can one marry? 1 And the other possessions 2 are placed in a house as well.


1

Maharal adds - 'A woman needs a house, as is the way of modest women.' But doesn't even a woman who isn't modest, need a house to live in? Maharal seemingly understands the Gemara in Sotah (that a man should first build a house and then get married, see 20:14:1 and 20:14:1.2:1 2

) is not just practical, but rather an essential truth. Marriage is described as "settling individuals into a home" (Tehilim 68:7) - the home is a cause of the marriage.

3

As for the division and order in which these appear in Va'eschanan, see the following question.

3)

Textual differences between Dibrah #10 of Parshas Yisro, and of Parshas Va'eschanan (Devarim 5:18). In Va'eschanan, a. it first forbids coveting one's fellow's wife, then his house; whereas Yisro has the opposite order; b. "v'Lo Sis'aveh" - "do not have desire [of your fellow's house]," whereas Yisro repeats "Lo Sachmod" -" do not covet." c. Va'eschanan adds "... his field;" d. and omits the Vav prefix of "[and] his ox."

1.

Maharal (Tif'eres Yisrael Ch. 45, p. 138): As above, according to Maharal, Sefer Devarim is written for the perspective of Man, recipients of the Torah. 1 a. The Dibros in Va'eschanan list coveting a wife first; man's wife fully joins and completes him. 2 Whereas Yisro lists a house first; man's stature dictates that logically he should first build a home, and then marry. 3 b. The term 'Ta'avah' clearly means material desire, whereas the term 'Chemdah' applies to desire that is less material in nature. 4 Devarim, which uses Man's perspective, states "v'Lo Sachmod" regarding a wife, and "v'Lo Sis'aveh" for the other acquisitions; 5 whereas in Yisro, "Lo Sachmod" is used for all of them. When not taking into account Man's materialistic perspective, objectively speaking all acquisitions bring Man some aspect of completion - such that the term "Lo Sachmod" is applicable. c. Yisro reflects Man's true stature as a thinking being; it does not mention a field, which is not in and of itself a meaningful organism (unlike a servant or animal). 6 Whereas Va'eschanan speaks from Man's physical nature; he needs his field more so than his ox and donkey. d. Va'eschanan mentions the ox and donkey, which a person needs and considers important. 7


1

As above, 20:12:156:1 .

2

Va'eschanan puts coveting a wife, not only first, but in its own section. Compare to Gur Aryeh to Devarim 5:17.

3

Sotah 44a: The Torah teaches Derech Eretz (proper conduct); a person should first build a house, then plant a vineyard, and finally marry a wife. Also see Ibn Ezra (Perush ha'Aroch) to 20:1, cited in Ramban to 20:13.

4

Gur Aryeh (to Devarim 5:12): [All that appears in Va'eschanan also appears in Yisro], thus 'Chemdah' and 'Ta'avah' are one and the same. Or, perhaps Ta'avah is something more than Chemdah. Chemdah relates to something inherently desirable; every Chemdah entails Ta'avah as well. Other things are not inherently desirable, and yet someone else might desire them anyway; that is Ta'avah without Chemdah. For more about this distinction, see Perush ha'Gra to Mishlei 2:16.

5

Gur Aryeh (to Devarim 5:17): A person might have Chemdah for something belonging to another, for two reasons - a. to complete something that he is lacking; b. due to his Yetzer, despite that he already has what he needs. Parshas Yisro addresses type a) - One who is aiming to fill his lack must plan a house before a wife; and the term Chemdah is applied to both. Va'eschanan addresses type b); it starts with "v'Lo Sachmod" regarding a wife, who has inherent Chen and of pleasing (Nechmad) appearance, for which the Yetzer is stronger; then "v'Lo Sis'aveh" regarding a house and other things the Nefesh can have Ta'avah for. [We learn an important idea, that when the Nefesh desires Arayos, it is not merely due to Ta'avah of the Guf, but rather a 'Chemdah' originating in the Nefesh.] (EK)

6

Compare to Gur Aryeh (to Devarim 5:17) - A person derives sustenance from the produce of the field, yet it is not the field itself that brings him completion. Also see Maharal (Chidushei Agados Vol. 1, p. 137, to Yevamos 63a), regarding Chazal's observation that "there is no lower occupation than working the land."

7

In a simple reading of Maharal, he is explaining why "his ox and donkey" appears at all in Va'eschanan, implying that the phrase does not appear in Yisro (as was the case in Dibrah #4; see above 20:12:158, letter c.). And yet "and his ox and donkey" does appear in Yisro! Rather, it seems that Maharal is addressing the distinction noted in the question - In Yisro there is a Vav, associating coveting of these items with the items preceding it, whereas in Va'eschanan they are an independent prohibition (due to their significance to their owner).

4)

What is the significance of "Lo Sachmod" - the last of the Aseres ha'Dibros?

1.

Ramban: Someone who does not covet what belongs to his friend will never damage his property, and will always fulfill his obligation to pay what he owes.

2.

Moshav Zekenim: The Torah writes "Lo Sachmod," and in Parshas Ekev it states, "Lo Sachmod Kesef v'Zahav Aleihem, v'Lakachta Lach" (Devarim 7:25), to teach us that, just like there, "Lo Sachmod" is in conjunction with taking - he actually steals the article that he covets. Even though another Pasuk forbids stealing, this is an additional Lav. 1


1

Refer also to 20:14:151:1 .

5)

What exactly does "Lo Sachmod" entail?

1.

Bava Metzia 5b: Refer to 20:14:151 - Although "Lo Sachmod" applies even if one offers to pay for the article, people think that it is confined to where one does not. 1

2.

Mechilta: Not through words alone, rather only if one actually does something to obtain the article. 2


1

See Torah Temimah, note 96.

2

As implied in Devarim 7:25. See also Torah Temimah, note 98.

6)

Why does the Torah write here "Lo Sachmod," but in Devarim (5:18) [also] "v'Lo Sis'aveh"?

1.

Moshav Zekenim and Hadar Zekenim (in Pasuk 13, both citing the Rambam in Hilchos Gezelah 1:9-10): One transgresses "Lo Sis'aveh" once one resolves in one's heart to obtain the article, and "Lo Sachmod" when one pressures the owner to sell it. 1

2.

Moshav Zekenim (citing R. Tam): People think that "Lo Sachmod" is without giving money, and "Lo Sis'aveh" is even if he gives money.

3.

Mechilta: See answer #1. And the Mechilta concludes that 'Someone who transgresses "Lo Sis'aveh" will go on to transgress "Lo Sachmod" ... to force the victim to pay ... and ultimately to rob. 2

4.

Maharal: See above, 20:14:1.2:1, letter c.


1

Refer to 20:14:3:2.

2

See also Torah Temimah, note 97.

7)

Why does the Torah insert "Sadeihu" in the Aseres ha'Dibros in Parshas Va'eschanan (Devarim 5:18), but omit it here?

1.

Moshav Zekenim (citing R. Tam): Because "Shoro" incorporates "Sadeihu;" like R. Yosi who referred to his wife as 'Beisi,' and his ox 'Sadi.' 1

2.

Moshav Zekenim: Because at the time of Matan Torah they did not own fields, whereas in Devarim, Moshe spoke to them after they had taken the fields of Sichon and Og.

3.

Riva: Because at the time of Matan Torah they did not own fields, whereas in Devarim, Moshe spoke to them as they were about to enter Eretz Cana'an and obtain fields. 2

4.

Maharal: See above, 20:14:1.2:1, letter b.


1

Moshav Zekenim: In that case, why does the Torah insert "Beis Re'echa? Why will it not suffice to write just "Eishes Re'echa?"

2

This is difficult, since, if not for the sin of the Egel, they were also destined to enter Eretz Cana'an immediately? Unless we say that Moshe prophesied that they would sin - without realizing that he was.

8)

Why is "Lo Sachmod" the last of the Aseres ha'Dibros?

1.

Maharal (Gevuros Hashem Ch. 66, p. 306): Ta'avah (desire) is the beginning of any sin; all Mitzvos are included in "Lo Sachmod." 1


1

Maharal (loc. cit.): This corresponds to the sin of the Etz ha'Da'as, which was "Ta'avah for the eyes." In terms of the 7 Mitzvos of Bnei Noach, "Lo Sachmod" parallels Ever Min ha'Chai - One who desires the meat to the degree that he could not wait until the animal was killed. Maharal (ibid. p. 308) - Arayos and Gezel are also Mitzvos Bnei Noach, but they are specific desires, whereas "Lo Sachmod" is being a desirous person in general. Also see above 20:1:9:1 letter f. , and 20:1:10 regarding this last Dibrah. Also see Maharal (Tif'eres Yisrael Ch. 45), and refer to 20:1:8:1 (regarding the order of the Aseres ha'Dibros), letter j. and its note - Although one does not transgress "Lo Sachmod" until [he takes action,] he pays his fellow money, and seizes from him [an item that the fellow had no intention of selling] - the beginnings of this sin lie in the heart.

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