Why does the Pasuk here mention "Beis Re'echa" before "Eishes Re'echa", and switch the order in Va'eschanan?
Ramban (citing the Ibn Ezra): Because the Pasuk here follows the logical order, where a man first builds a house and then gets married, whereas in Va'eschanan, it follows the way of young men, who want to marry first before building a house, or it follows the order of severity - since desiring another man's wife is more stringent than desiring his house.
What is the significance of the last of the Aseres ha'Dibros - "Lo Sachmod",?
Ramban: Someone who does not covet what belongs to his friend will never damage his property, and will always fulfill his obligation to pay what he owes.
Moshav Zekenim: The Torah writes "Lo Sachmod", and it writes in Eikev Devarim, 7:25 "Lo Sachmod Kesef ve'Zahav aleihem Velakachta lach", to teach us that, just like there, "Lo Sachmod" is in conjunction with taking - he actually steals the article that he covets. Even though another Pasuk forbids stealing, this is an additional La'av. 1
Refer also to 20:14:151:1*.
What exactly does "Lo Sachmod" entail?
Bava Metzi'a, 5b: Refer to 20:14:151* - Although "Lo Sachmod" applies even if one offers to pay for the article, people think that it is is confined to where one does not. 1
Mechilta: Not through words alone, only if one actually does something to obtain the article. 2
Why does the Torah write here "Lo Sachmod", and in Devarim (5:18), "Lo Sis'aveh"?
Moshav Zekenim and Hadar Zekenim (in Pasuk 13, both citing the Rambam in Hilchos Gezelah, 1:9-10): One transgresses "Lo Sis'aveh" once one resolves in one's heart to obtain the article, and "Lo Sachmod" when one pressures the owner to sell it. 1
Moshav Zekenim (citing R. Tam): People think that "Lo Sachmod" is without giving money, and "Lo Sis'aveh" is even if he gives money.
Mechilta: See answer #1. And the Mechilta concludes that 'Someone who transgresses "Lo Sis'aveh" will go on to transgress "Lo Sachmod" ... to force the victim to pay ... and ultimately to rob. 2
Why does the Torah insert "Sadeihu" in Va'eschanan Devarim, 5:18, and omit it here?
Moshav Zekenim (citing R. Tam): Because "Shoro" incorporates "Sadeihu" like R. Yossi, who called his wife 'Beisi', and his ox 'Sadi'. 1
Moshav Zekenim: Because at the time of Matan Torah they did not own fields, whereas in Devarim, Moshe spoke to them after they had taken the fields of Sichon and Og.
Riva: Because at the time of Matan Torah they did not own fields, whereas in Devarim, Moshe spoke to them as they were about to enter Eretz Cana'an and obtain fields. 2
Moshav Zekenim: In that case, why does the Torah insert "Beis Re'echa? Why wil it not suffice to write just "Eishes Re'echa?"
This is difficult, since, if not for the sin of the Eigel, they were also destined to enter Eretz Cana'an immediately? Unless we say that Moshe prophesied that they would sin - withoug realizing that he was.
