What are the connotations of "Lo Sisa ... la'Shav"?
Rashi, Ramban, Targum Onkelos and Targum Yonasan: 'It means 'Do not swear 1 falsely 2 by the Name of Hashem. 3
Seforno: It means that one who swears falsely (refer to 20:7:1:3) is subject to a curse, for he implies 4 that Hashem too (Kevayachol) is false. We learn that he is cursed from Melachim 1, 8:31.
B'rachos, 33a: It means that whoever recites an unnecessary B'rachah transgresses "Lo Sisa". 5
Shabbos, 120a: We learn from here that "Sisa" is a Lashon of Shevu'ah.
Rashi in Kedoshim, 19:12: Incorporating all Names of Hashem, not just that of Havayah. Refer to 19:12:1:1.
Seforno: Because when someone swears by Hashem's Name, he is declaring that, just as Hashem is Emes, so is what he is saying Emes. This is a blatant act of blasphemy and Chilul Hashem - as the Pasuk writes specifically in Vayikra (19:12).
Oznayim la'Torah: Or someone who mentions the Name of Hashem in vain. See also Torah Temimah, note 39.
Why does the Torah not write 'Lo Sishav'a'?
Oznayim la'Torah: Because the Torah is not concerned here with the defilement of one's speech, but with the defilement of Hashem's Name (which is implied in the words "Lo Sisa ... "). 1
Shabbos, 120a: To teach us that "Sisa" is a Lashon Shevu'ah. 2
Oznayim la'Torah: Bearing the Name of Hashem in an inappropriate manner. Refer also to 20:7:2.1:1.
See Torah Temimah, note 40.
"Lo Sisa es Shem Hashem Alokecha la'Shav". What if someone swears by one of the Names of Hashem other than that of Havayah?
Refer to Vayikra, 19:12:1:1.
Why does the Torah mention the word "la'Shav" twice?
Rashi (citing Targum Onkelos): They both refer to swearing by the Name of Hashem inappropriately; the first time in vain, 1 the second time, falsely 2 ('Im Eino Inyan' - Shevu'os, 21b).
Ramban: The first "la'Shav" is a prohibition against swearing in vain - to change or to uphold something that is known; 3 the second, to mentioning Hashem's Name in vain. 4
Seforno: The first refers to swearing falsely, the second, to swearing in vain, even if it is true.
Targum Yonasan: Both pertain to swearing in vain. 5
Shevu'os, 21a: 'Shevu'ah she'Ochalti' or 'Shevu'ah she'Lo Achalti' (which turns out to be false) is a Shevu'as Sheker, which we learn from "ve'Lo Sishav'u vi'Shemi la'Shaker" (Kedoshim Vayikra 19;12); whereas "Shevu'as Shav" is where one swears to describe a specific object that everybody knows to be something else. 6
Such as swearing that a pillar of wood is made of wood, or that one of stone is made of stone (Rashi).
That a stone pillar is made of gold (Rashi).
Ramban: To swear that a marble pillar that is located in view of the person swearing is made of gold or of marble.
Ramban: As it falls under the heading 'Motzi Shem Shamayim le'Vatalah' (see Ramban). 'Lo Sisa' means 'Don't speak (take) upon your lips' (as in Sh'mos 21:1 and in Tehilim, 16:4).
See Na'ar Yonasan.
See answer #1. See also Torah Temimah, note 43, who elaborates.
By the La'av regarding Shevu'as Sheker in Kedosim, 19:12 the Torah mentions Ish ba'Amiso"; why does it not mention it here?
Oznayim la'Torah:The Pasuk in Kedoshim is referrng to the Shevu'ah that one makes to a person in order to cheat or trick him, which incorporates a Chilul Hashem, since one swears by the Name of Hashem, whose seal is Emes. The Pasuk here on the other hand, 1 is referring to the Chilul Hashem that one performs by swearing falsely, even though the Shevu'ah does not affect a person. as implied in the word "la'Shav". 2
What are the connotations of "Ki Lo Yenakeh ... "?
Seforno: Someone who swears in vain is displaying disrespect towards Hashem's Name - which should only be used to confirm something that cannot otherwise be confirmed. 'He will not be let off the hook' for his display of disrespect. 1
Hadar Zekenim: Someone who steals can return the theft and cleanse himself. One who swears falsely and desecrates Hashem's name 'has no way of cleansing himself'. 2
Shevu'os, 39a: When someone comes to swear in Beis-Din, they say to him 3 'Know, that when Hashem declared "Lo Sisa ... ", the whole world 4 shook! Why is that? Because by all other Aveiros, the Torah writes "ve'Nakei", 5 whereas here it writes "Lo Yenakeh!" '. 6
Shevu'os, 39a: All Asei's and Lo Sa'aseh's fall under the category of 'Aveiros Kalos (light sins), exept for the current La'av, which goes together with Chayvei Kareis and Misos Beis-Din. 7
Seforno: And how much more so someone who swears falsely will be punished, on the Great Day of Judgment (in the World to Come - Targum Yonasan [See Na'ar Yonasan]).
Hadar Zekenim: This is why the Torah writes in Kedoshim Vayikra, 19:11 &12 "Do not steal and deny and lie... and do not swear falsely in My name" - The former leads to false oaths, which cannot be cleansed. And this explains why people refrain from a Safek Shevu'as Sheker, but not from Safek Gezel.
See Torah Temimah, note 42.
Literally - See Oznayim la'Torah.
The Gemara in Yoma, 86a, points out that "Lo Yenakeh" is confined to Shevu'as Shav and does not apply to any other S'tam La'avin (which are not subject to Kareis. See also answer #4 and refer to 20:7:3.1: 2.
See Torah Temimah, note 41.
What are the implications of "Ki Lo Yenakeh Hashem"?
Shevu'os, 21a: It implies that Hashem will not cleanse him from the Shevu'as Shav, 1 but Beis-Din can, by giving him Malkos 2 - efen though it is a La'av she'Ein bo Ma'aseh.
Shevu'os, 18b: It teaches us that Shevu'os are more stringent than Nedarim - in connection with which the Torah does not write "Lo Yenakeh". 3
Why are "Lo Sisa", "Zachor es Yom ha'Shabbos" and "Kabeid Es Avicha ve'Es Imecha" incorporated on the first Lu'ach?
Ramban: Just as it is not befitting to share Hashem's Kavod with others, 1 so too, is it befitting to ascribe Kavod to the Name of Hashem, and someone swears by it or who mentions it in vain, desecrates it. 2
Rashbam: Because honoring Shabbos and honoring one's parents, 3 like not swearing falsely or in vain using Hashem's Name, are all connected to the Kavod of Hakadosh-Baruch-Hu.
As the Torah writes in Vayikra 19:12 (Ramban). And that explains why the Torah writes "Keil Kana" by the former and "Lo Yenakeh" by the latter.
Whose honor is placed on a par with that of Hashem, as the Torah indicates in Mishlei, 3:9 (Rashbam).
Why does the Torah write "Ki Lo Yenakeh" and not just "Ki Yifkod alav"?
Ramban #1: Refer to 20:7:4:2**.
Ramban #2: To counter those who think that swearing in vain using Hashem's Name is not such a serious offense and is therefore subject to Divine Pardon.
