Why does it say "va'Amasa Lo Nishmar"?
Radak: He did not guard himself from the sword.
Midrash ha'Gadol (Shemos 21:14): Yo'av killed him "ba'Chagoraso Asher b'Masnav" (Melachim I, 2:5). He 1 asked him, how does a Gidem [give a Get to] divorce? (He has no hands!) He said, [the Get is between his belt and his hip;] he extends his hip to move the Get closer to her [and she takes it]. He said, show me! He showed him, and he stabbed him.
Mishbetzos Zahav citing R. M. D. Wali: He was not guarded from Shamayim. Just the contrary, he was handed over to Yo'av!
The Midrash does not explicitly say who asked the question. Surely it was Yo'av, who planned this. (The Midrash and Sanhedrin 49a expound from the end of the verse "uv'Na'alo Asher b'Raglav" that Yo'av asked Avner how a Gidemes does Chalitzah. Avner bent down to show (she removes the shoe with her teeth). Yo'av drew his sword and killed him.) If so, the dialogue implies that Amasa bent his hip. Is "b'Masnav" there not Yo'av's hip, like here?! Also, why would he expect Amasa to give this answer? He can simply kick it to her, or make a Shali'ach! Perhaps the Midrash is abbreviated. Amasa gave one of these answers. Yo'av said 'he himself can give it with his hip, without disgracing the Mitzvah (just like we do not cover the blood with the foot - Shabbos 22a). When showing how, the sword fell... In any case, how can we resolve the Midrash with the verses, which imply that he killed him amidst going to kiss him? (PF)
