1)

Why does the Torah insert the (otherwise superfluous) word ve'Im Amor Yomar ha'Eved"?

1.

Rashi (in Devarim 15:17): To teach that he is able to extend his period of service beyond six years, but an Amah ha'Ivriyah is not.

2.

Kidushin 22a: To teach us that he must make one declaration at the beginning of the six years (any time before they have terminated) as well as the one that he makes at the end. 1


1

See Torah Teemimah, nmote 43 and refer to 21:5:152:1.

2)

Why does the Torah refer to him here as "ha'Eved"?

1.

Oznayim la'Torah: Bearing in mind that the Torah already referred to him as "Eved Ivri", 1 it refers to him here derogatively (not just as 'Eved', but) as 'ha'Eved', because he chose to extend his years of Avdus - not to Hashem's liking. 2


1

Refer to 21:2:1.2:1.

2

Refer to 21:5:6:1.

3)

To whom does "Ishti" refer?

1.

Rashi: To his Shifchah Cana'anis 'wife'. 1

2.

Moshav Zekenim (Al Derech Derush): Refer to 21:3:1:3.


1

See Sifsei Chachmim.

4)

Why does the Torah say "Amor Yomar"?

1.

Kidushin 22a: To teach us that he must say so twice 1 - once at the beginning of the six years 2 and once at the end (when his Avdus has terminated and he is about to leave). 3 If he said it at the end but not at the beginning, his ear isw not pierced (and he is obligated to leave).


1

Oznayim la'Torah: The reason for his is because if he were to say so only at the beginning, we would suspect that he does not really mean it and is merely flattering his master or merely pulling his leg; whereas if he would say it only at the end, we would suspect that his statement is based on panic at the sudden realization that from now on he will be forced to bear the yoke of Parnasah on his shoulders (after six years of being sustained by his master).

2

Refer to 21:5:1:2.

3

See Rashi on the Gemara and Torah Temimah, note 43.

QUESTIONS ON RASHI

5)

Rashi writes that "ha'Eved" teaches that an Amah Ivriyah cannot be Nirtza. According to the opinion that "Azno" teaches only a slave through Beis Din sold is Nirtza, why do we need "ha'Eved"? One is sold "bi'Geneivaso", but not bi'Gneivasah (for her theft)!

1.

Moshav Zekenim: One might have thought that "ha'Ivri Oh ha'Ivriyah" (Devarim 15:12) equates them for this, and we exclude only one who sold himself. 1


1

Pnei Yehoshua (Kidushin 15a): Even though an Amah cannot say "Ahavti Es Ishti", we would have included her due to "v'Af la'Amascha Ta'aseh Ken" (Devarim 15:17, at the end of the verse of Retzi'ah).

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