Seeing as the Torah in Re'ei, Devarim 14:1 prohibits even a Yisrael from making a bald patch over a diseased person, why does the Torah here present the Isur by Kohanim?
Rashi (citing Kidushin 36a): The Torah does not mention "be'Rosham" by a Yisrael, nor "Al Meis" by a Kohen, and we learn via a Gezeirah Shavah "Korchah-Korchah" that what is written by one applies to the other 1 - and both are confined to where it is done as a sign of mourning for a deceased relative.
Ramban (in Re'ei Devarim, 14:1): The Torah here forbids the Kohanim to make bald patches and cuts because they are holy to Hashem. 2 In Re'ei, it adds an Isur that applies to all Yisrael of making cuts and bald patches 3 over their deceased relatives because they too are holy to Hashem, and it is not befitting to do so. 4
Seforno: Even though the Torah specifically permits them to render themselves Tamei in honor of their relatives, they are not permitted to extend that Kavod by making bald patches and cutting themselves in their honor.
Ibn Ezra: The Kohanim are warned 5 not to make bald patches, shave the beard or wound themselves, since it is not correct to serve Hashem in such a state.
Moshav Zekenim: "Yikr'chu" is written with a 'Hey' at the end (in place of a' Vav'), to render Chayav one who makes five bald patches simultaneously for each one. 6
Ramban: Because cuts on their skin and bald patches on their heads render their Avodah invalid (See R. Chavel's footnotes).
It is not clear why the Torah there reverses the order.
Refer to Devarim, 14:1:1:4, 14:1:1:5.
This explains why the Torah places a second Isur on Kohanim. (PF) Moshav Zekenim explains that this is why only men are commanded.
See also Torah Temimah, note 32.
Why does the Torah insert the word "be'Rosham" (See Torah Temimah, note 33)?
Makos, 29a: To incorporate the entire head - despite the words "Bein Einechem" in Re'ei (implying only the forehead). 1
And the Torah writes "Beis Einechem" in there in order to a Gezeoirah Shavah in connection with Tefilin. See Sifsei Chachamimas to why we learn Yisrael from Kohanim - that "be'Rosham" is Davka, and not the other way round.
Seeing as the Torah (in Kedoshim, 19:27) prohibits even a Yisrael from shaving off his beard, why does the Torah here present the Isur by Kohanim?
Rashi: The Torah mentions "Lo Sashchis" 1 by a Yisrael and "Lo Yegaleichu" 2 by a Kohen - from which we learn (Riva - through a Gezeirah Shavah "Pe'as-Pe'as" that one is Chayav only if he shaves using a razor, 3 which destroys the hair down to the roots.
Refer to 21:5:1:4.
Implying any form of destruction - even using tweezers or a plane.
Implying shaving in the regular fashion. Refer to 21:5:2.1:1.
See Ba'al ha'Turim.
How will we reconcile the Pasuk here, which writes "Lo Yegaleichu" with the Pasuk in Kedoshim, 19:27, which writes ve'Lo Sashchis Es Pe'as Zekanecha"?
Rashi: The combination teaches us that the Isur is confined to shaving with a razor, which both shaves and destroys. 1
But permits pulling out the hair with tweezers and shaving with scissors. See also Ba'al ha'Turim.
Seeing as the Torah (in Kedoshim, 19:28) prohibits even a Yisrael from making cuts over a diseased person, why does the Torah here present the Isur by Kohanim?
Rashi (citing Makos 20b): Because the Pasuk there writes "ve'Seret la'Nefesh ... ", implying that for making five cuts over one deceased person one is Chayav only one set of Malkos, it inserts here the extra word "Sarates", to sentence the sinner to one set of Malkos for each cut. 1
Refer to 21:5:1:4.
