Who instructed Moshe to stretch out a hand in peace to Sichon?
Rashi: Nobody! Moshe did so of his own accord. 1
Ramban: Yisrael were commanded to offer peace-terms to all the nations with which they fought, 2 , and what Moshe did here of his own accord was to request permission to pass through Sichon's land which was the land of the Emori (without conquering it) and which was therefore part of Yisrael's inheritance. 3
Refer to Devarim 2:26:2:1,2.
See Sifsei Chachamim DH 'Nachalas Ya'akov''
As the Pasuk indicates in Parshas Shoftim Devarim, 20:10.See also Rashi and Ramban in Devarim 20:10.
Bearing in mind that Sichon was king of the Emori - one of the seven nations which Hashem promised Avaham his descendents would inherit, why did Yisrael not attack them and take their land?
Ramban and Moshav Zekenim: Because Moshe knew that, in any event, Yisrael would not conquer all ten lands that Hashem promised to Avraham now. Consequently, he preferred to capture only the land of the seven nations that lived in Eretz Cana'an on the west bank of the River Yarden, a. in order for them to settle in one concentrated area; b. because, it was 'flowing with milk and honey' 1 , and c. because its Kedushah was superior to that of the east bank. 2
What did the messengers mean when they said "Lo Niteh be'Sadeh u've'Kerem, Lo Nishteh Mei Be'er"?
Targum Yonasan: What they meant with these three statements was that they would not rape betrothed girls, entice virgins or commit adultery with married women. 1
What are the implications of "be'Derech ha'Melech Neilech"?
Targm Onkelos: It mmeans literally that they would not drink their water or stray into their fields and vineyards.
Targum Yonasan: With reference to 21:22:3:1, it implies that they would comply with the instructions of the Heavenly King and not harrass the women.
Why does the Torah In Devarim, 2:28 mention buying food from Sichon and omit it here?
Because the Torah often teaches something S'tam, and specifies only somewhere else. 1
Like we find in Sh'lach-L'cha 15:38 in connetion with Tzitzis, where the Torah commands to attach Tzitzis on the corners of one's garments, and in Ki Seitzei Devarim, 22:12 it explains that this is only for garment of four corners. I do not know why Moshav Zekenim left this difficult. (PF)
Why here, does the Torah write "E'eberah (singular) ve'Artzecha", and in 20:17, in connection with Edom, "Na'abrah (plural) Na ve'Artzecha"?
R. Chaim Paltiel: Because Edom was their brother, and they therefore relied on this to request a wide path on which to pass simultaneouly, nd it was only when Edom refused that they requested a narrow path. 1 Whereas here, since Sichon was not their brother, from the beginning they requested a narrow path.
Ha'Kesav ve'ha'Kabalah: The singular refers to the entire nation as one. Regarding Edom, the plural refers to each person individually. 2 Since they were commanded not to attack Edom, they needed to ask politely (in a way that they would be afraid to let them pass).
Ha'Kesav veha'Kabalah: Similarly, it says about Mo'av (Devarim 23:5) "Lo Kidmu Eschem b'Lechem (every individual) ... va'Asher Sachar Alecha Bil'am (the nation as a whole, i.e. the king and Chachamim)".
Why does the Torah not insert the word "Na" like it it did in 20:17, "Naberah Na be'Artzecha" - in connection with Edom?
Ba'al ha'Turim (citing Midrash Tanchuma): Moshe was not basically interested in appeasing Sichon, merely in order to open with Shalom.
Ha'Kesav veha'Kabalah: Refer to 21:22:153:2.
Oznayim la'Torah: Because they were their brothers. Refer to 21:21:1:3.
Which part of Sichon's land did Yisrael request to pass through?
Bechor Shor, Da'as Zekenim and Hadar Zekenim: They asked for permission to pass by the border and not through the land itself. 1
The simple reading of the Pesukim and the other Meforshim implies that they asked to pass through the land itself. (PF)
Refer to 20:12:151:2* for many difficulties with this explanation.
