Why does the Torah add the (otherwise superfluous) word "Ve'hayah Im Lo Chafatzta bah"?
Rashi: To inform the captor that ultimately, he is bound to hate her and want to send her away. 1
Oznayim la'Torah: "Vehayah" always denotes Simchah, 2 and it is indeeed a Simchah if the captor overcomes his Yeitzer ha'Ra and sends the Y'fas To'ar away.
What are the implications of " ve'Shilachtah le'Nafshah"?
Ramban #1 (cit,ing the Sifri): "He sends her away" - but not to her father's house - either because she is now a Jewess, or so that she she should not worship idols. 1
Ramban #2: It implies that, although it is as if she was married to him, 2 he may send her away without a Get if he no longer wants to live with her. It depends on the first Bi'ah after conversion. If he wants to keep her after that, she is his wife, and if later he wants to send her away, she will require a Get 3
Targum Onkelos, Targum Yonasan and Sifri: "ve'Shilachtah" implies that if he wants to send her away, he is obligated to give her a Get. 4
Moshav Zekenim: "le'Nafshah" implies that he no longer has authority over her, and that she can remain a convert if she wishes or revert to being a Nochris.
Sifri: "le'Nafshah" implies that, in the event that she is sick, he should not send her away 5 until she has recovered. 6
Why does the Torah use the double Lashon "u'Machor Lo Simkerenah?
Sifri: To incorporate in the Isur giving her away as a gift.
Seeing as he no longer wants her as a wife, why is he not permitted to sell her - just as he could have done initially, had he so wished?
Oznayim la'Torah #1: Because it is not ethical to sell the woman with whom one lived intimately as a wife.
Oznayim la'Torah #2: In order to avoid the scenario where he decides to sell her but that he may as well 'have fun' with her before doing so. 1
Which explains why the Torah concludes "Tachas asher Inisah" (Oznayim la'Torah)>
What is the meaning of "Lo Sis'amer bah"?
Rashi and Ramban #1: It means that he is not allowed to use her as a slave. 1
Ramban #2 (citing Targum Onkelos, the Sifri and Sanhedrin, 85b), Rashbam and Targum Yonasan: It means that he is not allowed to sell her. 2
Ramban #3: Switching the 'Ayin' for an 'Alef'', 3 it means 'he should not act towards her highhandedly' (like a master towards a slave). 4
See Ramban DH 've'Rashi Kasav', citing the Yerushalmi in Shabbos and Avodah Zarah.
Rashbam: As we find later in 24:7 (This is simply an extension of "Lo Simkerenah ba'Kasef").
See Ramban, DH 'v'Shimush'.
Ramban: As in Tehilim 94:4 - "Yis'amru Kol Po'alei Aven", and below 26:17 - "es Hashem He'emarta Hayom". 'Amir' in Arabic means 'a master'.
What are the implications of "Tachas asher Inisah"?
Ramban (citing the Sifri): It implies that even after the first Intimacy, he is no longer permitted to sell her or to treat her like a slave.
Rashbam: It means '. ... because he acquired her through (forced) intimacy'.
Oznayim la'Torah #1: After the Y'fas To'ar has entered the captor's home and sees the beauty of a Jewish home and the dedicaton of a Jewish wife, she presumably has thoughts of Teshuvah. If he now sends her away - it is considered Inuy retroactively.
Oznayim la'Torah #2: Refer to 21:14:2.2:2 and note.
