1)

What is the meaning of "ve'Chi Yefateh Ish ... "?

1.

Rashi: It means that he talks her into doing what he wants.

2.

Ramban: It means that he slyly convinces her to carry out his wishes - either via words, money or lies. 1


1

Though the word can also refer to convincing a person sraightforwardly (See Ramban, who elaborates at great length on the word). Both Rashi and the Ramban claim that their respective explanations coincide with that of Targum Onkelos; the latter adds that it is also synonymous with that of Targum Yonasan.

2)

What are the implications of "Besulah"?

1.

Kesuvos, 38a: "Besulah", 've'Lo Be'ulah' - to preclude a girl who has had relations with a man from the Din of K'nas. 1


1

See Torah Temimah, note 161.

3)

What are the connotations of "Mahor Yimharenah Lo le'Ishah"?

1.

Rashi #1, Rashbam and Targum Yonasan: It means that he should write her a Kesubah - the fifty Shekel 1 (two hundred Zuz) Kesubah 2 that a man writes for his wife who is a Besulah (and then he is obligated to marry her - Rashi). 3

2.

Ramban: It means that he must send her gifts 4 like the gifts (Sivlonos) that a man sends his betrothed. 5

3.

Targum Onkelos: It means that he is obligated to marry her.

4.

Kidushin, 46a: It means that he should betroth her with the consent of her father. 6

5.

Kesuvos, 40a: It means that he marries her - if he so wishes. 7


1

Refer to 22:16:0.2:1*.

2

The Ramban maintains that Kesubah is only mi'de'Rabbanan. However, the opinion that considers it d'Oraysa proves it from this Pasuk. Refer to 22:16:1:3.

3

See Torah Temimah, note 169.

4

With the intention of marrying her, provided the girl and her father agree. See Ramban, who elaborates on the root of the word "Mohar".

5

See Targum Onkelos here and in Bereishis 32:12 (Ramban).

6

See Torah Temimah, note 162. & 162.

7

As opposed to a rapist, wo is obligated to marry the girl that he raped. See Torah Temimah, note

4)

Why does the Torah add the (otherwise superfluous) word "le'Ishah"?

1.

Yerushalmi Kesuvos, 3:1: To confine the Din of K'nas to a girl who is subject to Kidushin - to preclude a Shifchah Cana'anis from the realm of K'nas 1


1

See Torah Temimah, note 164, who elaborates.

5)

What are the implications of the words "Mahor Yimharenah Lo le'Ishah"?

1.

Mechilta: It implies that he may only betroth her 1 if she is permitted to him, but not if she is an Almanah to a Kohen Gadol, a Gerushah or Chalutzah to a Kohen Hedyot or a Mamazeres or a Nesinah to a Yisrael, with whom he is forbidden to live.


1

See Torah Temimah, note 165.

6)

Why does the Torah not insert "ve'Lo Sih'yeh le'Ishah" like it does by a rapist?

1.

Kesuvos, 40a: Because, as opposed to a rapist, he is not obligated to marry her - only if he agrees to. 1


1

See Torah Temimah, note 162.

7)

Why does the Torah not obligate a Mefateh to marry the girl he seduced and never divorce her like it does by a rapist?

1.

Ramban: Because, since the girl agreed to have relations with him, she is partially to blame, and a monetary K'nas will suffice. 1


1

See Ramban who elaborates.

8)

Why does the Torah not insert the word "Na'arah" here, like it does by a rapist?

1.

Ramban: It inserts it by a rapist to preclude a Bogeres, whom we might otherwise have thought is also subject to K;nas, since she was raped; whereas by Mefateh, who condescended to have relations with him, it is obvious that a Bogeres, who is no longer in her father's domain (like a Na'arah is), is not subject to K'nas.

Sefer: Perek: Pasuk:

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