Bearing in mind that the Torah - in the previous Pasuk - involved the mother in the proceedings, why does the girl's father speak and not her mother?
Rashi: This teaches us that a woman should not speak in front of her husband. 1
See Torah Temimah, note 136. See also Oznayim la'Torah.
What are the implications of the father's statement "es Biti Nasati la'Ish ha'Zeh"? Why does the Torah mention it?
Kesuvos, 22a #1 To teach us that a father 1 is believed to render his daughter (whether she is a Ketanah or a Na'arah) Asur 2 (to everybody, when he declares that he betrothed her) and to permit her [to P'loni], when he says 'to this man' 3 - 'ha'Peh she'Asar hu ha'Peh she'Hitir'. 4
Kesuvos, 22a #2: When the father declares "es Biti Nasati la'Ish", he renders her Asur on the whole world, and when he adds "ha'Zeh", he permits her to him 5 - To teach us the principle 'ha'Peh she'Asar hu ha'Peh she'Hitir'.
Kesuvos, 46a: To preclude a Yavam, who, after performing Yibum, comes to render Pasul his brother's marriage to this girl. 6
He also receives the money in the event that the Chasan betrothes her with money.
But a mother cannot be Mekadesh her daughter ... '. See Torah Temimah, note 138, who learns it from the fact that the Torah writes "es Biti Nasati" and not 'es Biteinu.
See Torah Temimah, note 140. See also Ba'al ha'Turim.
Though in reality, we know this from a S'vara. See Torah Temimah, note 139.
See Torah Temimah, note 140.
See Torah Temimah, note 141.
