What are the connotations of "Ve'anshu oso"?
Rashi (in Mishpatim) and Targum Onkelos: It means that they will claim from him.
Raban: It means that they wil punish (penalize) him.
What are th implications of the words " Venasnu la'Avi ha'Na'arah "?
Sifri: It implies "la'Avai ha'Na'arah", 've'Lo la'Avi ha'Bogeres' - even though she ws a Na'arah when the act took place. 1
See Torah Temimah, note 150 and note 152 in Pasuk 21..
Why does the Torah write "la'Avi ha'Na'arah" and not 'le'Avihah'?
Yerushlmi Kesuvos, 4:1: To teach us that sometimes, the money goes to her: If she went to Beis-Din before her father died then the money goes to her father, but if she went to Beis-Din after her father died, it goes to her - since the father cannot bequeath his daughter or her rights to his sons. 1
Yerushalmi, Ibid.: As the Torah writes in B'har Vayikra 25:46 - in connection with Avadim Cana'anim - "Vehisbachaltem osam li'Veneichem", 've'Lo Benoseichem li'Veneichem'.
How much is the "Me'ah Kesef" of Motzi-Shem-Ra?
Bechoros, 49b: It is a hundred Shekel ha'Kodesh (where a Shekel is a Sela ? double the standard Shekel), 1 according to the denomination of Manah Tzuri. 2
One regular Shekel = half a Sela. See also Targum Onkelos and Targum Yonasan. All the current details apply equally to Oneis and Mefateh in the following Parshiyos.
See Torah Temimah in Korach Bamidbar, 18:16, note 61.
"Ve'anshu oso Me'ah Kesef". What is the significance of the amount?
Why does the Torah insert the (otherwise superfluous) word "Ve'nasnu la'Avi ha'Na'arah", when it could hve written "Venasnu le'Avihah"?
Sifri: To preclude a Bogeres from the Din of Motzi-Shem-Ra. 1
Yerushalmi Kesuvos, 4:1: To teach us that, if she goes to Beis-Din after her father dies, the K'nas goes to her ? and not to her brothers. 2
Why does the Torah spell the word "la'Avi ha'Na'arah" with a 'Hey' - as opposed to all the other times the word appears in the Parshah, where the 'Hey' is omitted?
Kesuvos, 44b #1: Because whereas all the other locations, where "Na'arah" is spelt without a 'Hey', because they incorporate a Ketanah, here it means a Na'arah exclusively - to confine the Din of Motzi-Shem-Ra to a Na'arah. Otherwise, how how could the Torah in Pasuk 21 1 sentences her to death. 2
Kesuvos, 44b #2: To teach us that, wherever the Torah writes Na'arah without a 'Hey', it incorporates Ketanah. 3
Why does the Torah insert the (otherwise superfluous) phrase "Ki Hotzi Shem-Ra ... "?
What are the implications of the words " ? ki Hotzi Shem Ra al Besulas Yisrael"?
Kesuvos, 44b: To preclude the Besulah who is a Giyores from the Din of Motzi-Shem Ra - from which we can extrapolate that a Yesomah Yisre'elis who has no father is included. 1
See Torah Temimah, note 152.
Seeing as the man spoke Motzi-Shem-Ra about his wife, why does the Torah insert "ve'Lo Sih'yeh le'Ishah"?
Makos, 15a: To teach us that, if he divorces her, he does not receive Malkos, since "ve'Lo Sih'yeh le'Ishah" is an Asei, and a La'av ha'Nitak la'Asei is not subject to Malkos. 1
Yerushalmi Kesuvos, 3:6: To teach us thar if he divorces her, we force him to take her back.
Sifri #1: To teach us that 'he is forced to lay in the bed that he made' 2 - that he must remain married to her even if she is lame, blind or a leper.
Why does the Torah insert the (otherwise superfluus) words "Tachas asher Inah"?
Kesuvos, 40b: To obligate the rapist to pay
What are the implications of the (otherwise superfluous) words "Lo Yuchal le'Shalchah Kol Yamav"?
Sifri: It implies even after a long time. 1
Ibn Ezra: It means 'as long as he lives'.
Ha'Torah ve'ha'Mitzvah: Ten years. See also Torah Temimah, mjote 157.
Seeing as from the time she is married, the girl is independent, why does her father receive the money?
Moshav Zekenim #1: The father does not keep the money, like he keeps the fine for Oneis and Mefateh. Rather, it is entrusted with him for safekeeping or to invest it on her behalf.
Moshav Zekenim #2: It is his remuneration for advocating for her.
Moshav Zekenim #3: The claim against him was a great blemish and shame for him. He therefore receives the money in place of this. 1
It was a great blemish and shame for the girl as well, so why does she get nothing? (PF)
Why does a Motzi-Shem-Ra pay more than one who raped a Na'arah Besulah?
Moshav Zekenim: Because the Torah tends to be more stringent regarding speech than regarding action (Erchin 15a). 1
Oznayim la'Torah: Because, as opposed to the act of rape, which only causes pain and shame to the girl and her father, Motzi-Shem-Ra results in a bad name on all Besulos. 2
Moshav Zekenim: This is also the source that thoughts of sin are worse than sin itself (Yoma 29a).
Refer to 22:21:1.1:1.