Why does the Torah divide the Parshah of Mo'ados into four Diburim (Hashem to B'nei Yisrael) - the current Pasuk, and Pesukim 2, 24 & 34?
Why does the Torah insert the (otherwise superfluous) words "u'Ketzartem Es Ketzirah"?
Rashi (in Shabbos 131a): To teach us that the cutting of the Omer should be performed li'Shemah (for the sake of the Mitzvah).
Ramban: To teach us that it is forbidden to harvest the crops before having cut the barley for the Omer. 1
Menachos 83b: With reference to "Ki Savo'u El ha'Aretz," it implies that the Omer must be brought from the produce of Eretz Yisrael. 2
Ramban: Moreover, the Pasuk in Re'eh (Devarim 16:9), "me'Hachel Chermesh ba'Kamah Tachel Lis'por Shiv'ah Shavu'os" - teaches us that even to wield a sickle over the crops is forbidden until one begins to count the Omer (which is synonymous with cutting the barley for the Omer).
See Torah Temimah, note 28.
What are the ramifications of "Reishis Ketzirchem"?
Rashi (in Pesachim 11a) and Ramban : It means that the Omer must be brought from the first harvest of that year's crops, 1 (a prohibition against harvesting one's crops before the Omer is brought on the 16th of Nisan).
Moshav Zekenim: Yisrael are called "Reishis Tevu'aso" (Yirmiyah 2:3). Hashem is saying to Yisrael, 'Bring before Me Reishis, and I will blot out from before you "Reishis Goyim Amalek!" 2
What are the implications of "u'Ketzartem Es Ketzirah"?
Rashi (in Shabbos 131a): It implies that the cutting of the Omer should be performed li'Shemah (for the sake of the Mitzvah).
Menachos 83b: With reference to "Ki Savo'u El ha'Aretz", it implies that the Omer must be brought from the produce of Eretz Yisrael. 1
See Torah Temimah, note 28.
What is the definition of "Omer"?
What are the implications of the word "Ketzirchem"?
Sifra: It is confined to the five species of grain, 1 excluding legumes, and is only applicable to produce that has grown to a third of its size. Otherwise, it falls under the category of Shachas (wheat-grass), and is not called a harvest.
Wheat, barley, rye, oats, and spelt. See Torah Temimah, citing Menachos 70b, and note 30.
Why does the Torah add the suffix "Reishis Ketzir'chem"?
Pesachim 23a: To teach us that the Omer is Mutar be'Hana'ah. 1
Rosh Hashanah 33a: To render the produce of a Nochri ineligible for the Omer. 2
How will we reconcile "u'Ketzartem Es Ketzirah" (implying that one is permitted to reap before the Omer) with "Reishis Ketzirchem" (implying that the first harvest is the Omer)?
Menachos 71a: It teaches us that one may not harvest in the location from which one brings the Omer, and that one does not bring the Omer from a location that one may harvest. 1
See Torah Temimah, note 27.
Why is the Omer brought on Pesach?
Rosh Hashanah 16a: Because Pesach is the time when the barley ripens. So Ha'Kadosh-Baruch-Hu is saying to Yisrael, 'Bring before Me the Omer on Pesach, so that the produce in the fields will be blessed!' 1
Torah Temimah: Because on Pesach, the world is judged regarding the grain.
What is the significance of the fact that the Omer is the only Korban (See Oznayim la'Torah) that is brought into the Azarah in its raw state and not in the form of flour?
Oznayim la'Torah: Based on the well-known explanation that the Omer on Pesach (comprising barley) signifies animal-food, whereas the Shtei ha'Lechem on Shavu'os (comprising wheat) is human food - the Omer comes as a thanksgiving to Hashem for the ripening of the animal-food. 1 It is therefore brought to the Azarah in its initial form before being made into flour, and the wheat as a thanksgiving for the ripening of human-food.
Oznayim la'Torah: Barley precedes the ripening of the wheat, just as it is a Mitzvah to feed one's animals prior to eating oneself.
