What are the connotations of "Shabason"?
Ramban: It is a day of rest from work. 1
Ramban (citing Shabbos, 24b): It is an Asei. Consequently, someone who performs a Melachah on it, transgresses a Lo Sa'Asei and an Asei, 2 and whoever desists from performing a Melachah on it has fulfilled an Asei.
Ramban and Moshav Zekenim (citing the Mechilta): It is an Asei to desist even from activities that are neither Avos Melachos nor Toldos, such as transporting Keilim from one place to another. 3
Ramban (citing the Sifra): It is an Asmachta that refers to the Isurim de'Rabbanan 4 listed in Beitzah, 36b). 5
See Torah Temimah, note 80.
Ramban: Even though the Torah does not write "Shabbason" in connection with Pesach and Shavu'os, we learn one Yom-Tov from the other with a Hekesh in Pasuk 4 (See R. Cheval's footnotes). And it also extends to Shabbos.
See Ramban who elaborates. And this applies to Yom-Tov, but not to Chol ha'Mo'ed, though the Chachamim decreed even the Sh'vus of Amirah le'Nochri on Chol ha'Mo'ed as well.
Ramban: Some of which are listed in Yeshayah, 58:13.
Ramban: Even those that are connected with a Mitzvah, such as declaring Hekdesh and separating T'rumos and Ma'asros.
Why does the Torah insert the word "Zichron Teru'ah"?
Rashi #1: It is referring to the Pesukim of Zichronos and of Shofros 1 (that we recite in the Amidah) 2 to remember the Akeidah of Yitzchak, in whose place Avraham brought a ram.
Rashi #2 (on the Sidur): It is the name of the Yom-Tov - which explains why we refer to it as 'Yom ha'Zikaron'.
Ramban #1 and Rashbam: Because it is via the blowing of the Shofar that we will be remembered by Hashem for the good (on the day of judgment). 3
Ramban #2: Refer to 23:24:5:2*.
Seforno: It is an expression of joy, 4 of Yisrael rejoicing with their King when He sits on the Throne of judgment. 5
Moshav Zekenim and R. Amram: When Rosh Hashanah falls on Shabbos, we do not blow; this is a decree 6 in case one carries a Shofar in the R'shus ha'Rabim. It is merely a day of Zikaron - reciting Pesukim of Malchuyos, Zichronos and of Shofros. In Pinchas Bamidbar, 29:1, the Torah writes "Yom Teru'ah" - with reference to Rosh Hashanah which does not fall on Shabbos, when we actually blow. 7
See R. Chavel's footnotes DH 'de'Ha Vadai hu Safek', who points out that this is in fact, not min ha'Torah, but an Asmachta. See also Oznayim la'Torah DH 'Shabbason Zichron Teru'ah', who elaborates.
See also Ba'al ha'Turim.
Rashbam: See Beha'aloscha Bamidbar, 10:9 and Ramban 10:10. Refer also to 23:24:3:1.
Seforno: As in Tehilim, 81:2.
See Tehilim, 81:4. When we rejoice over His sovereignty, He tips the scales towards Chesed, and judges us mercifully - See Yeshayah, 33:22.
Moshav Zekenim says that the Pasuk teaches a Halachah which is mi'de'Rabbanan. This implies like the Ritva (Rosh Hashanah 16a, before DH uv'Mah) says, that 'an Asmachta is to arouse the Chachamim to enact, but Hashem did not make it obligatory, and left it to Chachamim's discretion. This is unlike those who say (like the Rambam's introduction to the Mishnah, just before DH ve'Eilu) that the Torah did not intend for this, just Chachamim found a 'Siman' to support their decree. This is heretical!' (PF).
See Torah Temimah, note 81, who elaborates at length.
Why does the Torah write here "Zichron Teru'ah" and in Pinchas, Bamidbar, 29:1 "Yom Teru'ah"?
And the Torah deliberately avoids writing "Tiske'u" or "Vahare'osem ba'Chatzotzros" - as it does in Beha'aloscha Bamidbar, chap.10 or "Veha'avarta ... Shofar Teru'ah" - as in B'har, 25:9 - in connection with Yovel - to teach us tht the Mitzvah is (not to blow it but) to hear the Shofar being blown. See Oznayim la'Torah DH 'Zichron Teru'ah' #1.
What are the connotations of "Mikra Kodesh"?
Rosh Hashanah, 32a: It teaches us to recite Kedushas ha'Yom (the B'rachah of Mekadesh ha'Shabbos') in the Amidah. 1
This is obviously an Asahchta. See also Torah Temimah, note 85, who elaborates.
From where do we know to recite Pesukim of Malchiyos?
Ramban (citing (citing Rosh Hashanah, 32a): From the words in Beha'aloscha Bamidbar, 10:10 - in connection with the Mitzvah of blowing the trumpets - "Ani Hashem Elokeichem", which, following "Vehayu lachem le'Zikaron lifnei Hashem Elokeichem",.are otherwise superfluous.
Rosh Hashanah, 32a: From the fact that the Torah juxtaposes ba'Chodesh ha'Shevi'i" to Ani Hashem Elokeichem" in Pasuk 22.
From where do we know to blow a Teki'ah before and after each Teru'ah?
Refer to 25:9:2.1:3 & note.
Rosh Hashanah, 34: We learn it via a Gezeirah Shavah "Teru'ah" "Teru'ah" from Yovel. Se also Torah Temimah, note 83.
What is the significance of the blowing? Why is Rosh Chodesh Tishri included in the Mikra'ei Kodesh?
Ramban: Refer to 23:24:2:3. Based on the fact that it occurs at the beginning of the same month as Yom Kipur, it is evident that it is the day on which Hashem judges the nations of the world, followed by ten days of Teshuvah 1 and a Day of Atonement.
Seforno: Refer to 23:24:2:5.
Oznayim la'Torah #1 (citing the Pesikta): Because 'On Rosh Hashanah Adam ha'Rishon was created ... in the tenth hour he sinned, in the eleventh hour he was judged and in the twelfth hour he did Teshuvah and avoided being sentenced to death on the same day. So Hakadosh-Baruch-Hu fixed Rosh Hashanah as a day of judgement on which Yisrael would do Teshuvah'.
Oznayim la'Torah #2: The Pasuk in Tehilim, 81:2-3 hints that Rosh Hashanah is the Day of Judgment, when it writes "Tik'u ba'Chodesh Shofar ... Ki Chok le'Yisrael hu, Mishpat l'Elokei Ya'akov". 2
Why does the Torah mention specifically "Teru'ah"?
Ramban #1 (according to Kabalah): Because the Teru'ah (which represents Midas ha'Din) stood for our fathers and for us. 1
Ramban #3: Because Teru'ah denotes Midas ha'Din, which is the order of the day. 2 Refer also to Bamidbar 10:5:2:1*.
Ramban: As the Pasuk writes in Tehilim, 99:16 "Ashrei ha'Am Yod'ei Teru'ah" and in Yirmiyah, 4:19 (See R. Chavel's footnotes)
Ramban: However, a Teru'ah is never blown on its own; it is always flanked by a Teki'ah (Midas Rachamim), one before and one after (in order to contain the Midas ha'Din) - See for example, Rashi in Bamidbar 10:5 and R. Chavel's footnotes DH 'Tiske'u ve'Lo Sari'u'. See also Ramban (DH 've'Al Derech ha'Emes'). Refer to 23:24:3:1*.
How do we know to blow a Shofar and not a trumpet?
Ramban #1: Since the Torah did not yet issue the command to make trumpets, and Stam Teru'ah refers to a Shofar. 1
Ramban #2 (according to Kabalah): Because "Shofar" hints at Midas ha'Rachamim, like "Yom". 2
Moshav Zekenim - a Hekesh equates Rosh Hashanah with Yovel.
Ramban: As the Torah writes in B'har 25:9 "Veha'avarta Shofar Teru'ah".
Consequently, when the Torah writes "Yom Teru'ah", it is as if it was written 'Shofar Teru'ah', a combination of Rachamim and Din. In the same vein, 'Zikaron' hints at Midas Rachamim, in which case "Zichron Teru'ah" too, refers to a combination of Din and Rachamim (R. Chavel's footnotes).
Seeing as Rosh Hashanah and Yom Kipur are both days on which we are judged, what is the basic difference between them?
Ramban: Rosh Hashanah is Din tempered with Rachamim) whereas Yom Kipur is Rachamim, tempered with Din.
Oznayim la'Torah: Refer to 23:27:6:1.
Why are women exempt from Shofar? Why do we not say that, since the L'aav of Melachah applies to them, also the Asei of Shofar applies to them as well - just like we say that whoever is forbidden Chametz has a Mitzvah to eat Matzah?
Moshav Zekenim #1: Perhaps we say 'whoever is forbidden?' only in a case like Chametz and Matzah, for both apply to eating, but we do not say so about Melachah and Teru'ah. 1
Moshav Zekenim #2: Perhaps we say only 'whoever is included in the first Pasuk is included in the second one, but not vice-versa. Even though we say (B'rachos 20b) 'Whoever is commanded in Shamor (do not do Melachah on Shabbos - a woman) is commanded Zachor (Kidush, even though Zachor is written first), this is because they were said simultaneously.
Moshav Zekenim: Similarly, wearing Sha'atnez and wearing Tzitzis [are similar, so one might have thought that one who is exempt from one is exempt from the other]. We need a Pasuk to obligate women in Kibud Av va'Eim. We do not say that since they are obligated to keep Shabbos they are also obligated to fear their parents (both are in 19:3. Honoring parents is written right after Shabbos - Sh'mos 20:11-12. - PF).
How many 'notes' must one hear?
Moshav Zekenim: Seeing as the Torah writes "Shofar Teru'ah" (B'har, 25:9), "Yom Teru'ah" (Pinchas Bamidbar, 29:1) and "Zichron Teru'ah (here)" 1 one is obligated to hear three Teru'os. And since a Teki'ah always precedes a Teru'ah and a Teki'ah always follows it, 2 one is obligated to hear nine 'notes'. 3
Refer to 23:24:2.3:1.
Since we are not sure whether the Torah's Teru'ah is what we call Teru'ah (nine short notes) or Shevarim (three notes, each the duration of three short sounds, or both of these, for each Teru'ah we blow three times (four notes, for one time is Teru'ah and Shevarim) with three Teki'os before and three after. ten notes in all (Rosh Hashanah 34a). We do so three times (thirty notes) before Musaf to fulfill the Torah Mitzvah according to all opinions, and again during Musaf (to confound the Satan - Rosh Hashanah 16a). The custom is to hear another forty notes after Musaf, to make a total of a hundred. (PF). Refer also to 23:24:4:2*.
