1)

What are the connotations of the word "v'Ha'avadti"? Why does the Torah insert it here in connection with Melachah, but not in the previous Pasuk in connecting with eating?

1.

Rashi: It teaches us that whenever the Torah mentions Kareis, it means total destruction. 1

2.

Seforno and Oznayim la'Torah: Because, as opposed to someone who eats, which he presumably does because he is hungry, someone who performs Melachah does so either to anger Hashem, or due to a lack of Emunah, which deserves a more severe punishment. 2


1

See Torah Temimah, note 94.

2

This implies that Kareis does not mean total destruction and that "Veha'avad'ti es ha'Nefesh ha'Hi is worse than Kareis. See Ibn Ezra and see answer 1.

2)

Why does the Torah add the (otherwise superfluous) words, "Es ha'Nefesh ha'Hi"?

1.

Sifra: Refer to Acharei Mos 16:29:2:3.

Sefer: Perek: Pasuk:

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