1)

Why did Lavan answer before his father Besu'el?

1.

Rashi: Because he was a Rasha (and Lavan was the primary mover in the house ? Ha?amek Davar).

2.

Ramban (in 29:5): Because Besu'el was a nonentity ? and Lavan was more important than him.

2)

What caused Lavan and Besu'el, who were idolaters, to acknowledge that HaSh-m had orchestrated the above-mentioned events?

1.

Rashi: They realized the truth due to Eliezer's portrayal of the events that had transpired. 1


1

Refer to 24:42:2:1.

3)

What is the significance of the statement, "Me'HaSh-m Yatza ha'Davar!"?

1.

Mo'ed Katan 18b: This teaches us that Shiduchim are made in Heaven. 1

2.

Malbim: Since it was miraculous, through Hashgachah, and not through Mazal, we have no free choice to oppose the Hashgachah.


1

Mo'ed Katan (ibid.): And we learn the same thing from a Pasuk in Nevi'im-"ve'Aviv ve'Imo Lo Yad'u Ki Me'HaSh-m Hi" (Shoftim 14:4); and from a Pasuk in Kesuvim - "u'Me'HaSh-m Ishah Maskeles" (Mishlei 19:14).

4)

What did they mean by "bad or good"?

1.

Rashi: They meant that they were unable to refuse using foul means (via a harsh answer) or fair (via a straight, logical one).

2.

Seforno and Rashbam: They could neither refuse nor uphold the Divine decree (which did not need their acknowledgement). 1


1

Rashbam: Seeing as, with or without their consent, Ha'Kadosh-Baruch-Hu, put His plan into action.

QUESTIONS ON RASHI

5)

Rashi writes: "'We cannot speak' - [i.e.] refuse in this matter; neither with a bad response nor a fitting response." Rashi interprets the verse, "We cannot speak to you good" as, 'We cannot refuse you for good reasons.' Why doesn't Rashi explain simply that they could not reply at all?

1.

Gur Aryeh: There is no reason why could not agree outright. They must mean that they could not refuse, even for good reasons.

Sefer: Perek: Pasuk:

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