What is the difference between this Pasuk and the following one? Why is the sinner Chayav Misah bi'Yedei Shamayim in this Pasuk and Misah bi'Yedei Adam in the following one?
Rashi: This Pasuk is speaking where there are no witnesses, in which case the blasphemer is Chayav Kareis, whereas the following Pasuk is speaking where there are witnesses, in which case he is Chayav Misah at the hand of Beis-Din.
Rashbam and Targum Yonasan: The current Pasuk is speaking where someone blasphemes one of the Names of Hashem other than the unique Name of Havayah, whereas the following Pasuk is speaking where He curses by the Name of Havayah. 1
Seforno: The current Pasuk is referring to the La'av of cursing a Dayan, who is punishable at the Hand of Hashem depending upon the status of the curser and the cursed, especially if the former did not curse with the Name of Hashem or he merely denigrated the Dayan; whereas the following Pasuk is speaking about somebody who blasphemes Hashem. 2
Targum Onkelos: The current Pasuk is speaking about someone who curses Hashem without mentioning His Name, whereas the following Pasuk is speaking about someone who curses by s Hashem's Name.
Da'as Zekenim and Hadar Zekenim: The current Pasuk discusses cursing a judge or Nasi; he bears his sin through lashes - "Elohim Lo Sekalel." The following Pasuk discusses one who curses is discussing someone who curses Hashem. He streteched out his, whois Chayav Misah because he stretched out his hand against the Source.
Riva #1: Here, he cursed 'Elohim 3 '. Perhaps he intended for (Ibn Ezra - angels or) judges, who are called 'Elohim.' Therefore, we cannot kill him.
Riva #2: Someone from one of the nations who curses his god will be punished - monetarily 4 , but if he curses Hashem's name, he will die.
This is the opinion of the Gemara in Sanhedrin, 56a (Torah Temimah) See also note 34.
Normally, one says 'Elohim' to refer to judges, and Elokim for Hashem, 'Elokim'. Here is different, for one who curses Hashem is not concerned for saying His name l'Vatalah! To be Chayav Misah, one must accept warning, and say 'I do so, knowing that I will be killed for it.' If he did so, surely he intended to curse Hashem! Perhaps if he says afterwards 'I retracted, and decided to curse only the judge', we cannot kill him, lest he truly did. Alternatively, we discuss a Chacham, according to the opinion that a Chacham need not be warned, (PF)
I do not know his source for this. (PF)
Why does the Torah repeat the word "Ish"?
Sanhedrin, 56a: To teach us that Nochrim are also included in the prohibition of blaspheming Hashem. 1
See Torah Temimah, note 33.
Why does the Torah see fit to write "ve'el B'nei Yisrael Tedaber?"?
Moshav Zekenim (on Pasuk 14): Because we might otherwise have thought that it was a Hora'as Sha'ah to stone him naked. This teaches us that it is a Mitzvah for all generations.
