1)

Why does the Torah insert the word "Nefesh Beheimah"

1.

Sanhedimn, 84b: Too teach us that the Mazik is only Chayav if he inflicts a wound on the animal.

2)

Why does the Torah write "Yeshalmenah" and not simply 'Yeshalem'?

1.

Bava Kama, 10b: In order to read it 'Yashlimenah' - implying that the owner takes the carcass and the Mazik only needs to pay the balance. 1

1

Refer to Sh'mos, 21:34:2:1*.

3)

What is the meaning of "Nefesh Tachas Nafesh"?

1.

Ramban: It means (not literally that one kills the striker's animal, but) that he must pay money 1 to replace the animal that he killed. 2

1

See Oznayim la'Torah, who explains why it cannot be uncdersstood literally, and who explains that this is an indication that "Ayin Tachas Ayin ... ' also means to pay money.

2

Ramban: Refer also to 24:20:1:1 and notes.

Sefer: Perek: Pasuk:

KIH Logo
D.A.F. Home Page
Sponsorships & Donations • Readers' Feedback • Mailing Lists • Talmud Archives • Ask the Kollel • Dafyomi Weblinks • Dafyomi Calendar • Other Yomi calendars