Why does the Torah omit the word "Im" from "u'Sene'ah ha'Ish ha'Acharon"?
Rashi and Targum Yonasan: To teach us that they will decree in Heaven 1 that he too will either hate her and divorce her 2 or die.
Gitin, 90b: The Torah is informing us that, when he htes her, one of two things wil happen- if he merits, he will divorce her; if not, she will bury him. 3
Having written "Vekasav lah ... Venasan be'Yadah, Veshilchah mi'Beiso" in Pasuk 1, why does the Torah repeat it here?
Kidushin, 13b: In order to juxtapose "O ki Yamus ha'Ish ha'Achron" to "Veshilchah mi'Beiso" ? to teach us that a woman aquires herself with the death of her husband, just as she aquires herself with a Get. 1
Yerushalmi Gitin, 6:1: Refer to 24:1:6:1***** and to 24:1:7:2. 2
What is the significance of the comparison between a Get and the death of the woman's husband?
Kidushin, 13b: It teaches us that, just s a Get permits a woman to marry another man, so too, does the death of her husband. 1
See Torah Temimah, note 72.
Why does the Torah mention finding a D'var Ervah regarding her first husband, but not regarding her second?
Kol Eliyahu and Divrei Eliyahu: The Gemara in Gitin, 90b learns from this that whereas by Zivug Rishon (the first marriage), one should divorce one's wife only if he found her guilty of adultery, by Zivug Sheni, he may divorce her even if she burned the food.
