Why does the Torah add "Hu Dasan va'Aviram ... "?
Ramban #1: To teach us that the entire inheritance of the family of Palu'i went to Nemu'el - seeing as Dasan and Aviram were swallowed up together with all that they owned.
Ramban #2 (citing Bava Basra, 118b): To teach us that, in spite of their eligibility to receive a portion in Eretz Yisrael, that portion went lost. 1
Megilah, 11a: To teach us that they were the same Resha'im from beginning to end 2 - both in Egypt and in the desert. 3
Ramban: Since they were from the Yotz'ei Mitzrayim (who were above the age of twenty when they left Egypt).
See Torah Temimah, note 2. Oznayim la'Torah: As opposed to Korach, who was a formerly a Tzadik, whose sons did Teshuvah because they had received a sound Chinuch at home.
See Oznayim la'Torah DH 'ba'Adas Korach'.
What is the translation of "asher Hitzu"?
Rashi #1: It means ' ? who incited (the people)'.
Rashi #2 (in Tehilim): ' ? who fought with Moshe and Aharon'.
Targum Onkelos: ' ? who assembled (the people)'.
Targum Yonasan: ' ? who assembled (the people) and quarrelled'.
Bearing in mind that Korach quarreled with Moshe and Ahsron, why does the Torah write "be'Hatzosam al Hashem"?
Rosh (16:25, citing Bamidbar Rabah 18:20): To teach us that anyone who argues with his Rebbi, it is as if he argues with Hashem.
