What does this Pasuk mean? What is "Ki Sechaleh" referring to?
When - on what day - does one perform Bi'ur Ma'asros ?
Rashi: We learn, via a Gezeirah Shavah "Mikeitz" "Mikeitz" from Hakheil - in Vayeilech 31:10 - which takes place on Succos, that it is on a Yom-Tov. However, here it cannot be Succos, since many trees are harvested after Succos. Consequently, it must be on Pesach, 1 by which time one has finished taking all the Ma'asros.
See Ba'al ha'Turim.
What are the implications of "Sh'nas ha'Ma'aser"?
Rashi #1: It implies a year in which there is only one of the two Ma'asros 1 - Ma'aser Rishon 2 - that applied during the first two years (and during the third and the fourth years) of the cycle. 3
Rashi (in Kesuvos, 25a): The Torah connects the Din of Ma'aser with the Sh'mitah, which they only began counting fourteen years later, after they had captured and conquered the land - to teach us that T'rumos and Ma'asros too, only came into effect then.
Targum Yonasan: It refers to the third year, when one gives Ma'asros to the Levi, the Ger, the Yasom and the Almanah - who, like the Levi, do not possess land of their own. 4
Rashi: See Bamidbar, 18:26 and above, 14:23. See also Torah Temimah, note 43, who elaborates.
Rashi: But not Ma'aser Sheini, which is replaced with Ma'aser Oni in the third year. Hence, the Torah writes "la'Levi" (Ma'aser Rishon) and "la'Ger, la'Yasom ve'la'Almanah", (Ma'aser Ani).
Targum Yosanan explains "Sh'nas ha'Ma'aser" like Rashi, only he refers to Ma'aser Ani as 'Ma'aser Sheini' - because, like Ma'aser Rishon, the owner gives it to the prescribed recipient. And the following Pasuk discusses a third Ma'aser (what we call 'Ma'aser Sheini', and which Targum Yonasan calls 'Ma'aser Shelishi'), which is a completely different kind of Ma'aser.
See previous note.
What is the significance of the fact that Ma'aser Sheini applies in only four of the six years of the Sh'mitah-cycle?
Oznayim la'Torah: Since Ma'aser Sheini had to be eaten in Yerushalayim, that would provide the basic amount of food that would be required for the amount of time that one had to spend in Yerushalayim over the full seven-year cycle: One tenth of 365=36 and a half - x four = 126. 1 This would be twenty days for each of the seven years 2 - corresponding to the twenty days each year that one is obligated to spend in Yerushalayim: Pesach - 7; Shavu'os - 1; Succos - 8; the day after each Yom-tov (Linah) - 3 and Erev Pesach - 1.
What are the implications of the words "Venasata la'Levi ... "?
Temurah, 10a: It implies that T'rumos and Ma'aser go after the person who gives it to the Levi. Consequently, if Reuven gives Ma'asros from his crops to cover the crops of Shimon, he (Reuven) has the Tovas Hana'ah (the right to give it to the Kohen and the Levi of his choice). 1
Nedarim, 84b: See previous answer. By the same token, if, after Reuven declares a Neder forbidding on himself Hana'ah from people, he becomes poor, he is permitted to benefit from his Leket, Shikchah and Pe'ah - since they are Hefker - but not from his Ma'aser Ani 2 - since he is considered the owner, and he will be benefiiting from his own property.
Why does the Torah insert the (otherwise superfluous) word "Ve'achlu bi'She'arecha"?
Bava Metzi'a, 88a #1: To teach us that the courtyard (just like the house) - provided it is guarded 1 - fixes for Ma'asros. 2
Bava Metzi'a, 88a #2: To teach us that Tevel does not become subject to Ma'asros, until it enters the house (See the following Pasuk) provided it enters it in the convential manner - via the front-door, 3 but not via the roof or via an enclosure.
Sifri: To teach us that Ma'aser Sheini must remain in Eretz Yisrael and one is not permitted to take it to Chutz la'Aretz.
Why does the Torah add the word "Vesave'u"?