David told Avishai to take the spear and flask (verse 11). Why did David take them himself?
Radak: He feared lest Avishai not be able to withhold himself (from killing Sha'ul).
Why is there a Tzeirei under the Mem in "me'Ra'ashosei"? In verse 16, there is a Sheva under the Mem!
Radak: Here the Mem is a prefix (from). In verse 15 (Mera'ashosav), Mem is from the root.
Why does it say "Ein Ro'eh v'Ein Yode'a v'Ein Mekitz"?
Radak: No one saw, no one sensed them come, and no one woke due to their conversation. 1
Malbim: Granted, they did not see, for it was night. According to nature, someone should have sensed their speech, entry and exit! Rather, it was Hashgachah.
Even if it said only that all were asleep, we would know all this! Surely they whispered, lest they wake people! (PF)
Why does it say "Tardemas Hashem" (Samuch)?
Radak #1: It was a great (very deep) sleep. Attaching Hashem's name to a noun greatens it, e.g. "Mapelyah" (Yirmeyah 2:31), "Shalhevesyah" (Shir ha'Shirim 8:6), "k'Harerei Kel" (Tehilim 36:7)?
Radak #2: It teaches that it was due to Hashem, in order to enable them to take the spear and flask.
