"Ve'asisa Badim la'Mizbe'ach, Badim Badei Atzei Shitim". Why the lengthy Lashon (here nd in Pasuk 7 - See R. Chavel's footnotes)? Why did the Torah not write simply 'Ve'asisa Badim la'Mizbe'ach Atzei Shimtim' - or 'Ve'asisa la'Mizbe'ach Badei Atei Shitim' like it did in connection with the Aron and the Shulchan?
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R. Bachye: To hint at the miracle that occurred with the Aron,
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that, after four hundred and eight-seven years after the Exodus from Egypt,
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the Badim of the Aron would grow fom temos in length to twenty.
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