1)

?u?ve?Yom ha?Shabbos Sh?nei Kevasim?. Why does the Torah not commence with ?Vehikravtem? or ?Takrivu? like it does by Rosh Chodesh and the Ymim-Tovim?

1.

R. Bachye: To teach us that they did not brong the Musaf of Shabbos during the forty years in the desert, since they were not commanded until now. 1


1

See R. Chavel?s footnotes, where he queries this.

2)

?u?ve?Yom ha?Shabbos Sh?nei Kevasim?. Seeing as "Kevasim" implies two ('Miy'ut Rabim Sh?nayim') why does the Torah add the (otherwise superfluous) word "Sh'nei"?

1.

R. Bachye (citing Yoma, 62b): To teach us that the two lambs should be identical 1 (in appearance, in size and in value - Torah Temimah). 2


1

As the word "Sh'nei always implies. See Torah Temmah, note 30.

2

Yoma: Lechatchilah,but Bedi?eved, they are Kasher even if they are not identical.

3)

?u?Shenei Esronim So?les?. What is the significance of the two tenths of an Eifah?

1.

R. Bachye: It corrsesponds to the Lechem Mishneh ? the double portion of Manna that each person received each person received every Shabbos.

4)

Why does the Musaf of Shabbos comprise only two lambs?

1.

Da'as Zekenim, Hadar Zekenim and Rosh (all citing Midrash Shochar Tov): When Shabbos complained about this, Hashem replied that, since everything about Shabbos is [written] double - Shir, Oneg, Misah, Lechem [Mishneh] - also its Korban should be double 1 [that of a regular day]. 2


1

Da'as Zekenim: This can be compared to a king who commanded to make a meal for his sons. He then commanded to make a meal for himself - just like they made for his sons.

2

And in Tefilas Musaf of Shabbos, we say that the Korban Musaf is appropriate for the day.

Sefer: Perek: Pasuk:

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